Postal LGO -Postman to PA/SA , MTS to PA/SA AND GDS to PA?SA Previous Papers
2019 LGO PAPER
(1.) The weight of a privately printed letter card shall not exceed
(A.) 2 grams
(B.) 3 grams
(C.) 4 grams
(D.) 5 grams
(2.) Permission for Business Reply Service is given by:
(A.) Head Postmaster
(B.) Head of Division
(C.) Head of Region
(D.) Head of Circle
(3.) Which of the following cannot be sent as Book Packets?
(A.) Police diaries
(B.) Written letters of old date which have previously passed through the post
(C.) Pupil’s exercises in original or with corrections
(D.) Horoscopes in manuscript not bearing any written endorsement
(4.) The maximum weight for Blind Literature Packet is:
(A.) 2 kg
(B.) 7 kg
(C.) 20 kg
(D.) 35 kg
(5.) Which of the following conditions is incorrect with reference to Registered Newspapers availing concessional postage?
(A.) The publication shall consist wholly or in great part of political or other news
(B.) The publication shall be published in intervals not more than 31 days
(C.) The publication has a bona fide list of subscribers
(D.) The Registration number shall be printed on the wrapper of the publication
(6.) Overseas orders of Philatelic stamps are fulfilled through:
(A.) New Delhi GPO
(B.) Kolkata GPO
(C.) Mumbai GPO
(D.) Chennai GPO
(7.) Which postal articles cannot be included in the Special List of articles delivered to bulk addressee:
(A.) Registered letters
(B.) Speed Post letters
(C.) Registered letters with acknowledgment due
(D.) Articles on which any charges are to be recovered
(8.) When the last day for the payment of postal dues falls on a Sunday or postal holiday:
(A.) The previous working day shall be taken as the last day for payment
(B.) The next working day shall be taken as the last day for payment
(C.) One counter of the post office shall be operated on the holiday to facilitate such transactions
(D.) None of the above
(9.) Articles enclosed in open panel (window) envelopes must conform to the following:
(A.) No writing or printing other than the address may be visible through the panel.
(B.) A minimum of 1.5 cm must be left above the panel for postage stamp and date stamp impression.
(C.) The open panel must not be more than 10 cm in length and 3.5 cm in breadth.
(D.) All of the above
(10.) Which of the following is not prohibited for transmission by inland post?
(A.) Indecent or obscene article
(B.) Explosive, inflammable substance
(C.) Ticket or advertisement relating to lottery
(D.) Living creature not noxious and not likely to injure postal article in the course of transmission
(11.) Headquarters of the Universal Postal Union is in:
(A.) Geneva
(B.) Bonn
(C.) Berne.
(D.) London
(12.) Where is the headquarters of the Asian Pacific Postal Union?
(A.) New Delhi
(B.) Manila
(C.) Bangkok
(D.) Jakarta
(13.) Which of the following is not true with regard to packing of postal articles?
(A.) Liquids and substances which easily liquefy shall be enclosed in perfectly leak-proof containers.
(B.) Live bees, leeches and parasites shall be enclosed in boxes so constructed as to avoid any danger.
(C.) Packing is compulsory for articles in one piece such as wood, metal etc
(D.) Letter Post items must be made up securely and in such a way that there is no risk of other items being trapped in them.
(14.) Which of the following is incorrect in respect of registered newspapers destined to foreign countries?
(A.) The rules concerning registered newspapers in inland post apply to such articles in foreign post except for the postage.
(B.) Newspapers can be posted without affixing postage stamps under same conditions as for inland
post
(C.) License given to registered newspapers for inland post is valid for such articles in foreign post also.
(D.) The maximum and minimum dimensions for printed papers and registered newspapers are the same as for letters.
(15.) Which of the following is incorrect?
(A.) No list of perishable biological substances which can be exported by post to foreign countries can be furnished since foreign countries have their own rules and regulations governing such imports.
(B.) Living insects including eggs can be imported under certain conditions:
(C.) Parcels are allowed entry through Parcel Post by air as well as by sea except some of the prohibited and restricted plants.
(D.) Cotton seeds can be freely imported into India,
(16.) Force Majeure means:
(A.) A major force
(B.) A decision forced by staff demand
(C.) In circumstances beyond control
(D.) Legal force
(17.) Which of the following is incorrect with regard to customs duty?
(A.) Complaints about assessment of duty are dealt with only by the Customs authorities
(B.) Postal articles on which Customs Duty is due cannot be delivered at the Window of the post office
(C.) Customs authorities may confiscate an article for.violation of any laws
(D.) Every inward foreign article on which duty is levied is subject to a postal customs clearance fee
(18.) Regarding request for delivery free of charges, which of the following is incorrect:
(A.) It can be made when an advice of non-delivery is made to the sender
(B.) The sender will be required to pay a deposit
(C.) The sender is required to pay a special fee
(D.) Such a request cannot be made after despatch of the parcel
(19.) Customs clearance charge:
(A.) is a postal charge in addition to customs duty
(B.) is inclusive of the customs duty assessed
(C.) is charged on all parcels received from foreign countries irrespective of whether they contain dutiable articles or not
(D.) None of the above
(20.) In the case of a parcel addressed ‘Poste Restante’:
(A.) Warehousing charge shall be levied if delivery is not taken within 3 days
(B.) The parcels (except value payable parcels) can be detained in the office of delivery for a period not exceeding one month.
(C.) Value payable parcels can be detained in the office of delivery indefinitely
(D.) None of the above
(21.) DARPAN stands for:
(A.) Digital Applications in Rural Post Office for a New India
(B.) Digital Advancement of Rural Post Office for a New India
(C.) Development of Advanced Post Office Applications for a New India
(D.) None of the above
(22.) Which of the following is incorrect in respect of India Post Core Banking Solution:
(A.) POSB transactions can be carried out at any post office in India
(B.) Interoperable ATM services
(C.) Interoperable internet banking services
(D.) SMS alerts are available
(23.) Which of the following is not a part of the Core System Integrator (CSI) solution:
(A.) POS
(B.) IPVS
(C.) McCamish
(D.) HRMS
(24.) Which of the following is a mobile application:
(A.) DARPAN CBS
(B.) POS Back-office
(C.) Post Info
(D.) Employee Self Service (ESS) Portal
(25.) Which is the application to be used to apply for leave:
(A.) Staff Scheduling System
(B.) Manager Self Service
(C.) Employee Self Service
(D.) Identity and Access Management.
(26.) The process of applying for GPF withdrawal to approval by competent authority and credit to employee’s bank account in CSI is an example of:
(A.) Self service
(B.) Block chain
(C.) Data flow
(D.) Work flow
(27.) What is encryption?
(A.) Jumbling up information to confuse the user
(B.) The process of encoding information in such a way that only authorized person can access it.’
(C.) Burying information in a crypt so that it is not accessible to anyone.
(D.) None of the above
(28.) A fraudulent attempt, usually made through e-mail to steal a user’s personal information is called:
(A.) SPAM ,
(B.) Screening
(C.) Phishing
(D.) Ponzi
(29.) Maintaining secrecy of password is:
(A.) Responsibility of supervisor
(B.) Collective responsibility of the office
(C.) Responsibility of individual employee
(D.) Responsibility of system administrator
(30.) In respect of GDS substitute in DARPAN:
(A.) DARPAN user id is used
(B.) CSI User id is used
(C.) RSI User id is used
(D.) Aadhaar number is used as id
(31.) International Tracked Packet Service is not available to which of the following countries:
(A.) Australia
(B.) Vietnam
(C.) South Korea
(D.) China
(32.) Which of the following is true in respect of Pradhan Mantri Jeevan JyotiBimaYojana:
(A.) It is administered through the Department of Posts
(B.) It is administered through LIC or any other Life Insurance company willing to offer such a product in partnership with a Bank
(C.) It is administered through the participating bank or post office as the case may be
(D.) The enrolment form is transferred to the administering entity
(33.) Which of the following is true with regard to default fees in Recurring Deposits:
(A.) The default fee is compounded monthly
(B.) There is a grace period of 3 days before default is levied
(C.) If the default is over six months, the term of the account can be extended
(D.) Maximum 4 defaults are allowed.. .
(34.) Payment for which of the following cannot be done through IPPB presently:
(A.) SukanyaSamridhi Account
(B.) Public Provident Fund Account
(C.) Recurring Deposit Account
(D.) National Savings Certificate
(35.) Which of the following is true in respect of Western Union Money Transfer:
(A.) The maximum remittance limit is 3000 USD
(B.) A maximum of 30 remittances are permitted per beneficiary in a calendar year
(C.) Amountsupto INR 60,000 can be paid by cash
(D.) Payee has the option of taking payment in USD once a year
(36.) Who among the following is eligible for Postal Life Insurance cover:
(A.) Any citizen of India above the age of 18 years
(B.) Any relative of Government, semi-government or public sector employee –
(C.) Employees of listed companies of NSE and BSE in certain sectors
(D.) None of the above
(37.) Minimum business per month to be provided by bulk customer to be eligible for Book Now Pay Later (BNPL) facility in speed post is:
(A.) Rs 5,000.
(B.) Rs 7,500
(C.) Rs 10,000
(D.) Rs 15,000
(38.) Which of the following is not an activity under ‘Business Post’:
(A.) Collection from premises
(B.) Addressing
(C.) Special handling for articles weighing up to 100grams
(D.) Bagging anddespatch
(39.) e-Payment is a:
(A.) Money transfer service
(B.) One-to-many payment service
(C.) Many-to-one payment service
(D.) Digital payment service
(40.) Which of the following is incorrect in respect of Direct Post:
(A.) Articles posted as Direct Post will bear no address or name on the communication.
(B.) Articles to be accepted have to be such that they do not exceed the length and width of an A4 size paper.
(C.) A minimum quantity of 1000 pieces can be accepted under the Direct Post.
(D.) Direct Post articles would be accepted in PIN Code wise bundles
(41.) The Government would provide the following funding support to Atal Pension Yojana (APY) (Choose the incorrect option):
(A.) Minimum pension guarantees for subscribers
(B.) Co-contribution of 50% of the coral contribution or Rs 1000 per annum, whichever is lower, to all subscribers
(C.) Reimbursement of the promotional and development activities
(D.) None of the above
(42.) What is the period of preservation of the Special Error Book in the Savings Bank Department:
(A.) 18 months
(B.) 3 years
(C.) 5 years
(D.) 1 year
(43.) Which of the following is not contained in BO Slip:
(A.) Amount of postage to be collected on unpaid’ articles of letter mail sent to the BO
(B.) Details of cash sent to the BO
(C.) Particulars of articles, documents, account office receipts etc and postage and other stamps sent to the BO
(D.) Acquittanceroll for the GDS serving in the BO
(44.) PO Savings Certificate can be transferred before expiry of one year from the date of issue under the following circumstances (choose the incorrect option):
(A.) To a near relative out of natural love and affection.
(B.) In the name of heir of deceased holder on admission of claim
(C.) In the name of survivor in the event of death of one of the joint holders
(D.) To accident victim or heir, if holder of certificate has caused the accident
(45.) Limit to which Head of Division is competent to sanction claim of amounts defrauded from SB Accounts:
(A.) Rs 5000/
(B.) Rs 10000/
(C.) Rs 15000/
(D.) Rs 20000/
(46.) Metal Tokens are issued to (Choose the incorrect option):
(A.) Officials who travel on duty in a vehicle or compartment reserved for the post office
(B.) Officials who have to enter the platform for exchange of mail
(C.) Record officers, Sorting Assistants, Mail Guards and MTS
(D.) Supervisors in mail offices
(47.) AMPC IS
(A.) Agile Mail Packing Centre
(B.) Automatic Mail Packing Centre
(C.) Automatic Mail Production Centre
(D.) Automatic Mail Processing Centre
(48.) In connection with All India Mail Survey, which of the following is incorrect:
(A.) The survey has to cover home district, home circle, neighboring circle and distant circle
(B.) The survey will be conducted in one selected post office in the division
(C.) At least 25% of the offices selected for the survey must be rural
(D.) The survey is to be undertaken in the month of October
(49.) Foreign Post Office is:
(A.) Post office in a foreign country
(B.) Post office in which articles to foreign destinations are booked
(C.) A place where opening of postal articles for examination and imposition of customs duty is done
(D.) None of the above
(50.) Office of Exchange is:
(A.) A post office or sorting office or section which exchanges mails with offices in foreign countries
(B.) An office which deals with settlement of foreign exchange with other postal administrations.
(C.) An office that exchanges mails at the border
(D.) An office that regulates exchange of personnel among postal administrations.
(51.) Where are tea plantation found in India?
(A.) Karnataka & Kerala
(B.) Kerala and Uttar Pradesh
(C.) Kerala and Assam.
(D.) Assam and Tamil Nadu
(52.) The highest Mountain Peak in Uttarakhand is :
(A.) Saramati
(B.) Kanchenjunga
(C.) Kandto
(D.) Nanda Devi
(53.) Which of the following rivers do not flow in the West?
(A.) Godavari
(B.) Luni
(C.) Sabarmati
(D.) Mahi
(54.) The final power to decide whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not is vested with the following:
(A.) Prime Minister of India
(B.) Vice President of India
(C.) Speaker ofLok Sabha
(D.) Chairman,NitiAayog
(55.) Kathakali is a classical dance form practiced in which state
(A.) Odisha
(B.) Tamil Nadu
(C.) Kerala
(D.) Manipur
(56.) Who was the interim Speaker of the 17th LokSabha
(A.) Maneka Gandhi
(B.) Om Birla
(C.) Virender Kumar
(D.) Kariya Munda
(57.) Which of the following leaders did not participate in the 1857 revolt (A.) Rani Lakshmi Bai
(B.) Tatya Tope
(C.) Kunwar Singh
(D.) Wali Khan
(58.) Which of the following is a Payment Bank :
(A.) State Bank of India
(B.) Reserve Bank of India
(C.) BhartiyaMahila Bank
(D.) India Post Payment Bank
(59.) The Vedas, Upanishad, Puran and Dharmsutra are written in which language?
(A.) Sanskrit
(B.) Palt.
(C.) Prakrit
(D.) Hindi
(60.) If a businessperson pays his debt on time to the bank, how is the situation benefitted?
(A.) Banking system is strengthened
(B.) Debt will increase in the country
(C.) People will go abroad after taking money frombanks
(D.) Business and Economy will be badly affected
(61.) 7059 – 2350 + 1936 = ? x 50
(A.) 123.6
(B.) 132.9
(C.) 132.6
(D.) 123.9
(62.) At simple interest, a sum doubles after 20 years, rate of interest per annum is ?
(A.) 5%
(B.) 10%
(C.) 12%
(D.) Data inadequate
(63.) When the price of a toy was increased by 20%, the number of toys sold was decreased by 15%. What was the effect on the sales of the shop ?
(A.) 4% increased
(B.) 4% decreased
(C.) 2% increased
(D.) 2% decreased
(64.) Yogesh borrowed Rs. 12000 at simple interest for 5 years. If he paid Rs. 3600 as simple interest after 5 years. What is the rate of interest per cent per annum
(A.) 5%
(B.) 8%
(C.) 10%
(D.) 6%
(65.) The average salary of A, B is Rs. 6000 and that of C, Dand E is Rs. 8000. The average salary of all the 5 people is
(A.) Rs. 7200
(B.) Rs. 7000
(C.) Rs. 7500
(D.) Can’t be determined
(66.) Shikha goes from Ahmedabad to Lucknow at the speed of 40 km/hr and returned at the speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of Shikha during the whole journey is
(A.) 48 km/hr
(B.) 24 km/hr
(C.) 50 km/hr
(D.) None of these
(67.)Solve the Equation
(A.) 1
(B.) 5
(C.) 1/5
(D.) 25
(68.) A cricket team played 60 matches in a season. It won 30% of the matches played and was able to draw 10% of the matches. How many matches did the cricket team loose?
(A.) 36
(B.) 34
(C.) 24
(D.) 30
(69.) 10 Boys and 10 Girls in a class obtained the following marks in Maths :
Boys : 20, 24, 25, 25, 16, 8, 10, 12, 14, 18
Girls: 22, 24, 25, 25, 25, 20, 18, 20, 24, 22
Average marks of Boys and Girls respectively in Maths?
(A.) 17.8, 22.5
(B.) 17.2, 22.4
(C.) 17.2, 22.5
(D.) 17.8, 22.6
(70.) 10 Boys and 10 Girls in a class obtained the following marks in Maths :
Boys : 20, 24, 25, 25, 16, 8, 10, 12, 14, 18
Girls: 22, 24, 25, 25, 25, 20, 18, 20, 24, 22
Average marks of Class in Maths?
(A.) 19.85
(B.) 19.25
(C.) 18.95
(D.) 18.92
(71.) 6 men or 10 women can reap a field in 15 days, then the number of days that 12 men and 5 women will take to reap the same field is
(A.) 5
(B.) 6
(C.) 8
(D.) 12
(72.) By walking at ¾ of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minute later than usual. His usual time taken to office is?
(A.) 30 minute
(B.) 60 minute
(C.) 75 minute
(D.) 1 hour 30 minute
(73.) Aman, on tour travel first 160 km, at 64 km/hr and the next160 km at 80 km/hr. The average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is?
(A.) 35.55 km/hr.
(B.) 71.11 km/hr.
(C.) 36 km/hr.
(D.) 72 km/hr.
(74.) A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 100 days. If there were 10 men less, it would take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?
(A.) 75
(B.) 92
(C.) 120
(D.) 110
(75.)Solve
(A.) 0
(B.) 1
(C.) 100
(D.) 107/200
(76.) One man purchases a farmland for Rs 20000. He sold 1/5 of the farmland at loss of 25%, 3/8 of the farmland at 25% profit, then at what price should he sell the remaining land to make a total profit of 10%?
(A.) 9625
(B.) 8722
(C.) 15550
(D.) 7000
(77.) A fruit merchant purchases mangoes at Rs 120/ kg and sells them at Rs 200/ kg. What is the profit of the fruit merchant?
(A.) 69.8%
(B.) 68.9%
(C.) 66.6%
(D.) 65 %
(78.) Solve
(A.) 100000
(B.) 69842
(C.) 39684
(D.) 30158
(79.) A 200 meter long train crosses an electricity pole in 10 seconds, then what is the speed of the train in km/hr
(A.) 20
(B.) 72
(C.) 36
(D.) 18
(80.) The Sum of 1/2 and 1/3 is?
(A.) 5/6
(B.) 1/6
(C.) 1/5
(D.) 2/5
(81.) Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
(A.) 5
(B.) 6
(C.) 8
(D.) 10
(82.) Count the number of rectangles in the given figure.
(A.) 8
(B.) 17
(C.) 18
(D.) 20
(83.) Choose the correct mirror image of the Fig: (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.
(A.) c
(B.) d
(C.) a
(D.) b
(84.) The following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures A, B, C and D constitute Problem set while figures 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 constitute the Answer set. There is a definite relation between figures A and B. Establish a similar relationship between figures C and D by selecting a suitable figure from the answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. (D)
(A.) 1
(B.) 5
(C.) 3
(D.) 2
(85.) The following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures A, B, C and D constitute Problem set while figures 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 constitute the Answer set. There is a definite relation between figures A and B. Establish a similar relationship between figures C and D by selecting a suitable figure from the answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. (D)
(A.) 1
(B.) 3
(C.) 5
(D.) 2
(86.) The following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures A, B, C and D constitute Problem set while figures 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 constitute the Answer set. There is a definite relation between figures A and B. Establish a similar relationship between figures C and D by selecting a suitable figure from the answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. (D)
(A.) 3
(B.) 5
(C.) 4
(D.) 2
(87.) Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
(A.) 23
(B.) 27
(C.) 29
(D.) 31
(88.) In each of the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term
8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83
(A.) 13
(B.) 21
(C.) 32
(D.) 47
(89.) In each of the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term
105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45,-90
(A.) 105
(B.) 60
(C.) 0
(D.) -45
(90.) In each of the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term
15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70
(A.) 16
(B.) 22
(C.) 45
(D.) 70
(91.) In each problem, out of the five figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e), four are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the rest
(A.) a
(B.) d
(C.) e
(D.) c
(92.) In each problem, out of the five figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e), four are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the rest
(A.) a
(B.) e
(C.) d
(D.) c
(93.) In each problem, out of the four figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), three are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(A.) c
(B.) d
(C.) b.
(D.) a
(94.) Complete the series by filling the appropriate number in the question mark to continue the same pattern.
(A.) d
(B.) c
(C.) b
(D.) a
(95.) Complete the series by filling the appropriate number in the question mark to continue the same pattern.
1,6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91
(A.) 25
(B.) 26
(C.) 27
(D.) 28
(96.) Complete the series by filling the appropriate number in the question mark to continue the same pattern.
2,5,9, 19, 37, ?
(A.) 73
(B.) 75
(C.) 76
(D.) 78
(97.) Complete the series by filling the appropriate number in the question mark to continue the same pattern.
10, 20, 30, ?, 50
(A.) 50
(B.) 30
(C.) 40
(D.) 20
(98.) Complete the series with the missing term. Choose the correct alternative which will continue the same pattern
1, 5, 14, 30, 55, 91, ?
(A.) 130
(B.) 140
(C.) 150
(D.) 160
(99.) Complete the series with the missing term. Choose the correct alternative which will continue the same pattern
1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, ?
(A.) 32
(B.) 64
(C.) 81
(D.) 256
(100.) Complete the series with the missing term. Choose the correct alternative which will continue the same pattern
5760, 960, ? , 48, 16, 8
(A.) 120
(B.) 160
(C.) 192
(D.) 240
ANSWER (1.) D (2.) B (3.) A (4.) B (5.) D (6.) C (7.) D (8.) B (9.) D (10.) D (11.) C (12.) C (13.) D (14.) C (15.) D (16.) C (17.) B (18.) D (19.) A (20.) B (21.) B (22.) C (23.) C (24.) C (25.) C (26.) D (27.) B (28.) C (29.) C (30.) D (31.) D (32.) B (33.) D (34.) D (35.) B (36.) C (37.) C (38.) D (39.) C (40.) B (41.) C (42.) B (43.) D (44.) D (45.) A (46.) D (47.) D (48.) D (49.) C (50.) A (51.) D (52.) D (53.) A (54.) C (55.) C (56.) C (57.) D (58.) D (59.) A (60.) A (61.) B (62.) A (63.) C (64.) D (65.) A (66.) A (67.) D (68.) A (69.) C (70.) A (71.) B (72.) B (73.) B (74.) D (75.) B (76.) A (77.) C (78.) A (79.) B (80.) A (81.) D (82.) C (83.) B (84.) B (85.) A (86.) A (87.) C (88.) D (89.) C (90.) B (91.) B (92.) A (93.) C (94.) B (95.) D (96.) B (97.) C (98.) B (99.) B (100.) CNotification for AAO LDCE 2024: Details on Eligibility, Syllabus, and Application Procedure.
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