India Post GDS to PA/SA, MTS to PA/SA & PM/MG to PA/SA Exam 2026 Question Papers & Answer Keys – All 23 Postal Circles

India Post GDS to PA/SA, MTS to PA/SA & PM/MG to PA/SA Exam 2026 Question Papers & Answer Keys (All 23 Postal Circles)

The India Post GDS to PA/SA, MTS to PA/SA and Postman/Mail Guard to PA/SA Departmental Examination 2026 was conducted on 28 June 2026 across all 23 Postal Circles. On this page, VV Academy is publishing memory-based question papers, unofficial answer keys, and downloadable PDFs as they become available. Candidates can compare their answers, estimate their scores, and access circle-wise papers from across India.

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Competitive & Departmental Examinations Practice Paper

1. What is the strength of nominated members in Rajya Sabha?
  • A. 12
  • B. 15
  • C. 20
  • D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
Under Article 80 of the Constitution of India, out of the maximum 250 members in the Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President of India from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.
2. The Strait of Hormuz connects which of the following?
  • A. Red sea and Gulf of Eden
  • B. Mediterranean Sea and Antarctic Ocean
  • C. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
  • D. Continent of Asia and North America
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically important waterway located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, serving as the main maritime route for oil exports from the Gulf region.
3. The word “Ethics” is derived from
  • A. Latin
  • B. Greek
  • C. Hebrew
  • D. Persian
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
The word “Ethics” originates from the ancient Greek word ethos, which translates to character, habit, custom, or disposition.
4. Which Constitution amendment introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS)?
  • A. 103rd Amendment Act
  • B. 104th Amendment Act
  • C. 105th Amendment Act
  • D. 106th Amendment Act
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 2019, amended Articles 15 and 16 of the Indian Constitution to enable a 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens in education and public employment.
5. What is the primary goal of “Dak Chaupal”, an initiative of Department of Posts?
  • A. Promotion of Har Ghar Tiranga Campaign of GoI
  • B. Bringing Government services to the door steps at the grass root level
  • C. To establish a standardised Geo coded address system in India
  • D. To create awareness campaign conducted under systematic voters education and electoral participation (SVEEP)
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
“Dak Chaupal” is a community-connect program designed by the Department of Posts to bring financial, digital, and government services directly to rural doorsteps and generate awareness at the grassroots level.
6. In which annual session of the Congress, the proclamation for “Purna Swaraj” was declared?
  • A. Bombay, 1942
  • B. Belgaum, 1924
  • C. Calcutta, 1905
  • D. Lahore, 1929
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
The historic declaration of Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) was promulgated by the Indian National Congress during its session held in Lahore in December 1929 under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru.
7. Salarjung Museum which is a repository of artistic achievements of diverse European, Asian and Far Eastern countries is located in
  • A. Chennai
  • B. Thiruvananthapuram
  • C. Lucknow
  • D. Hyderabad
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
The Salar Jung Museum is an art museum located on the southern bank of the Musi River in Hyderabad, Telangana. It is renowned for hosting one of the largest personal collections of antiques in the world.
8. What are the conditions for a party to be recognised as national party in India?
  • A. 6% votes in 4 States in Lok Sabha elections and 2 seats in Loksabha
  • B. 6% votes in 2 States in Lok Sabha elections and 4 seats in Loksabha
  • C. 6% votes in 4 States in Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly elections and 4 seats in Lok Sabha
  • D. 6% votes in 2 States in Lok Sabha elections and 2 seats in Loksabha
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
According to the Election Commission of India rules, one way a political party can achieve national recognition is by securing at least 6% of the valid votes in four or more states in a general election to the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, alongside winning at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states.
9. Which state is the largest producer of Manganese in India?
  • A. Andhra Pradesh
  • B. Madhya Pradesh
  • C. Telangana
  • D. Maharashtra
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Madhya Pradesh is consistently ranked as the leading producer of manganese ore in India, contributing a significant percentage to the national total output.
10. Which among the following is an ethical responsibility of a business concern?
  • A. Publishing the annual reports in public domain
  • B. Producing the goods that society wants
  • C. Providing charitable contributions to educational institutions
  • D. Behaviour of the firm that is expected by the society but not codified in law
Correct Answer: D
11. When 10 pens were purchased @ Rs.12 each, 10 Pencils @ Rs.5 each, if the combo of Pen and pencil packet was sold for Rs.25 each, what would be the percentage of profit or loss?
  • A. 47% Profit
  • B. 80% Profit
  • C. 47% loss
  • D. Percentage could not be calculated
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
Total Cost Price (CP) of 10 pens and 10 pencils = (10 × 12) + (10 × 5) = 120 + 50 = Rs. 170.
Since they are sold as a combo packet (1 pen + 1 pencil per combo), 10 combo packets can be formed.
Total Selling Price (SP) of 10 combo packets = 10 × 25 = Rs. 250.
Profit = SP – CP = 250 – 170 = Rs. 80.
Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100 = (80 / 170) × 100 ≈ 47.05% ≈ 47% Profit.
12. 100 units were purchased @ Rs.100 per unit in Mutual funds. 50 units were sold @ Rs.104 per unit at the end of first year and the remaining were sold @ Rs. 108/- at the end of second year. If 10% IT has been paid for both years for the profit earned, what would be the net profit/loss?
  • A. 600
  • B. 540
  • C. 450
  • D. 560
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Total Cost Price (CP) = 100 × 100 = Rs. 10,000.

Year 1 Profit: 50 units sold at Rs.104. Cost was Rs.100 each.
Gross Profit = 50 × (104 – 100) = Rs. 200
IT Paid (10%) = 10% of 200 = Rs. 20
Net Year 1 Profit = 200 – 20 = Rs. 180

Year 2 Profit: Remaining 50 units sold at Rs.108.
Gross Profit = 50 × (108 – 100) = Rs. 400
IT Paid (10%) = 10% of 400 = Rs. 40
Net Year 2 Profit = 400 – 40 = Rs. 360

Total Net Profit: 180 + 360 = Rs. 540.
13. X invested Rs.10000/- and got Rs.20000/- on maturity after 5 years, what would be percentage of interest per annum. Consider simple interest is payable that too only at maturity.
  • A. 20%
  • B. 50%
  • C. 100%
  • D. 10%
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
Principal (P) = Rs. 10,000
Amount on maturity (A) = Rs. 20,000
Simple Interest (SI) = A – P = 20,000 – 10,000 = Rs. 10,000
Time (T) = 5 years
Using formula SI = (P × R × T) / 100:
10,000 = (10,000 × R × 5) / 100
1 = 5R / 100 ⟹ R = 100 / 5 = 20%.
14. In a class of 50 students, 80% passed in Telugu and 20% passed in English. Those who failed in Telugu have failed in all subjects. Then, how many have passed only in English?
  • A. 40
  • B. 10
  • C. 0
  • D. Data is insufficient to calculate the answer
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Total students = 50.
Passed in Telugu = 80% of 50 = 40 students.
Failed in Telugu = 50 – 40 = 10 students.
The condition states: “Those who failed in Telugu have failed in all subjects.” This means the 10 students who failed Telugu also failed English.
Therefore, anyone who passed English must be chosen from the pool of students who passed Telugu.
As a result, there are 0 students who passed only English, because all 20% of the students who passed English also passed Telugu.
15. 10 apples were purchased for Rs.20/- each and 20 oranges were purchased @ Rs.15/- each. 10 cut fruit bowls were prepared using both the fruits and 5 were sold @ Rs.60/- each, 3 were sold @ 50/- each and remaining @ Rs.30/- each. What would be % of Profit?
  • A. 10
  • B. 2
  • C. 1
  • D. Nil
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Total Cost Price (CP) = (10 × 20) + (20 × 15) = 200 + 300 = Rs. 500.
Total Selling Price (SP) for 10 fruit bowls:
5 bowls @ Rs.60 = 5 × 60 = 300
3 bowls @ Rs.50 = 3 × 50 = 150
Remaining (10 – 5 – 3 = 2) bowls @ Rs.30 = 2 × 30 = 60
Total SP = 300 + 150 + 60 = Rs. 510.
Profit = 510 – 500 = Rs. 10.
Profit Percentage = (10 / 500) × 100 = 2%. (Option B is mathematically accurate).
16. A person travels from city A to B. He covers 1/4 of the distance by car, 1/2 of the remaining distance by bus and the remaining 15 KMs by bike. What is the total distance between A and B?
  • A. 60 KM
  • B. 30 KM
  • C. 45 KM
  • D. 40 KM
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
Let the total distance be x.
Distance covered by car = x/4.
Remaining distance after car = x – x/4 = 3x/4.
Distance covered by bus = 1/2 of 3x/4 = 3x/8.
Leftover distance = 3x/4 – 3x/8 = 3x/8.
We know this leftover distance equals 15 km:
3x/8 = 15 ⟹ 3x = 120 ⟹ x = 40 KM.
17. A car covers a distance in 40 minutes with an average speed of 60 km per hour. The average speed to cover the same distance in 30 minutes is
  • A. 80 Km/h
  • B. 45/2 Km/h
  • C. 70 Km/h
  • D. 45 Km/h
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
Distance = Speed × Time = 60 km/h × (40/60) hours = 40 km.
Required speed to cover 40 km in 30 minutes (30/60 = 0.5 hours):
New Speed = Distance / New Time = 40 / 0.5 = 80 Km/h.
18. Amrita takes 18 hours to travel 720 kilometres. Time taken by her to travel 360 kilometres is
  • A. 10 hours
  • B. 9 hours
  • C. 12 hours
  • D. 15 hours
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Since the distance to be covered (360 km) is exactly half of the initial distance (720 km), and speed is constant, the time taken will also be halved: 18 / 2 = 9 hours.
19. 30 men reaps the field in 17 days. If the field is to be reaped in 10 days, how many more persons are required?
  • A. 6
  • B. 21
  • C. 51
  • D. None of above
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Using man-days formula: M1 × D1 = M2 × D2
30 × 17 = M2 × 10 ⟹ M2 = 510 / 10 = 51 men.
More persons required = 51 – 30 = 21.
20. In a scout camp, there is food provision for 300 cadets for 42 days. If 50 more persons join the camp, for how many days will the provision last?
  • A. 30 days
  • B. 25 days
  • C. 36 days
  • D. 252 days
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Initial Cadets (M1) = 300, Days (D1) = 42.
New Cadets (M2) = 300 + 50 = 350.
Using formula M1 × D1 = M2 × D2:
300 × 42 = 350 × D2 ⟹ D2 = 12600 / 350 = 36 days.
21. If AB x B = 9B, then A, B =
  • A. 9, 1
  • B. 1, 9
  • C. Both a and b
  • D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
BASED ON OPTONS answer is C OTHER WISE ANSWER IS BECAUSE D If evaluated as digits (cryptarithm), no simple pair satisfies the expression cleanly under basic base-10 formatting, making Option D the logical standard choice.
22. Solve: x/2 + x/4 + x/5 + 10000 = x
  • A. 100000
  • B. 150000
  • C. 200000
  • D. 400000
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Find the LCM of 2, 4, and 5, which is 20.
10x/20 + 5x/20 + 4x/20 + 10000 = x
19x/20 + 10000 = x
10000 = x – 19x/20 ⟹ 10000 = x/20
x = 10000 × 20 = 200,000.
23. The present age of father is four times the age of his son. After 10 years, age of father will become three times the age of his son. Find their present ages of father and son.
  • A. 90 years and 30 years
  • B. 80 years and 20 years
  • C. 20 years and 80 years
  • D. 100 years and 25 years
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Let the son’s present age be s. Father’s age is 4s.
After 10 years: Father’s age = 4s + 10, Son’s age = s + 10.
Equation: 4s + 10 = 3(s + 10) ⟹ 4s + 10 = 3s + 30 ⟹ s = 20.
Son = 20 years, Father = 4 × 20 = 80 years.
24. If 3x – 4(64 – x) = 10, then the value of x is
  • A. -266
  • B. 133
  • C. 66.5
  • D. 38
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
3x – 256 + 4x = 10
7x – 256 = 10 ⟹ 7x = 266
x = 266 / 7 = 38.
25. Suhana sells a sofa set for Rs.9600/- making a profit of 20%. What is the C.P. of the sofa set?
  • A. 7000
  • B. 7500
  • C. 8000
  • D. 9000
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 9600, Profit = 20%.
Cost Price (CP) = SP / (1 + Profit Percentage/100) = 9600 / 1.20 = Rs. 8000.
26. If Meenakshee pays an interest of Rs.1500 for 4 years on a sum of Rs. 2500, find the rate of interest per annum (p.a.)
  • A. 20
  • B. 15
  • C. 10
  • D. 5
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Using Simple Interest formula SI = (P × R × T) / 100:
1500 = (2500 × R × 4) / 100
1500 = 100 × R ⟹ R = 15%.
27. After allowing a discount of 15% on the marked price of an article, it is sold for Rs 680. The marked price of the article is
  • A. 120
  • B. 800
  • C. 850
  • D. 900
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Selling Price (SP) = 680, Discount = 15%.
Marked Price (MP) = SP / (1 – Discount Percentage/100) = 680 / 0.85 = 800.
28. In 2007-08, the number of students appeared for Class X examination was 1,05,332 and in 2008-09, the number was 1,16,054. If 88,151 students pass the examination in 2007-08 and 103,804 students in 2008-09. What is the increase or decrease in pass % in Class X result?
  • A. 5.76
  • B. 6.75
  • C. 5.65
  • D. (-)5.76
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
Pass % (2007-08) = (88,151 / 1,05,332) × 100 ≈ 83.688%
Pass % (2008-09) = (103,804 / 1,16,054) × 100 ≈ 89.444%
Increase in pass % = 89.444% – 83.688% = 5.756% ≈ 5.76%.
29. Brinda purchased 18 coats at the rate of Rs 1,500 each and sold them at a profit of 6%. If customer is to pay sales tax at the rate of 4%, how much will one coat cost to the customer and what will be the total profit earned by Brinda after selling all coats?
  • A. Rs 1635.60, Rs 1620
  • B. Rs 1590, Rs 1620
  • C. Rs 1653.60, Rs 1620
  • D. Rs 1563.60, Rs 1620
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Cost of 1 coat to Brinda = Rs. 1500.
Selling Price of 1 coat before tax (with 6% profit) = 1500 × 1.06 = Rs. 1590.
Cost of 1 coat to customer (including 4% sales tax) = 1590 × 1.04 = Rs. 1653.60.
Profit per coat earned by Brinda = 1590 – 1500 = Rs. 90.
Total profit for 18 coats = 18 × 90 = Rs. 1620.
30. How much more per cent seats were won by X as compared to Y in Assembly Election in the state based on the data given below. (Data: X=158, Y=105, Z=18, W=3)
  • A. 35.71
  • B. 18.27
  • C. 53.74
  • D. 18.027
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
Difference in seats won = 158 – 105 = 53.
If calculated relative to the total number of Assembly seats (158 + 105 + 18 + 3 = 294):
(53 / 294) × 100 = 18.027%. Hence, Option D aligns directly with the provided answer key structure.

Question 31

Studio : Mumbai : Stars
  • A. Ship : Madras : Harbour
  • B. Orange : Nagpur : Juice
  • C. Parliament : Delhi : Ministers
  • D. Sunrise : Darjeeling : Sheepas
Ans. C
Sol.

A Studio is a place where Stars (film actors) work, and Mumbai is famous for the film industry. Similarly, Parliament is the place where Ministers/Parliamentarians work, and it is located in Delhi. Hence, option (c) is the best analogy.

Question 32

RUSTICATE = QTTUIDBSD, STATISTIC = ?
  • A. RSBUJTUHB
  • B. RSBUITUHB
  • C. RSBUIRSJD
  • D. TUBUITUMB
Answer: B. RSBUITUHB
Solution:

The word RUSTICATE follows a specific letter-shift pattern: R(-1)=Q, U(-1)=T, S(+1)=T, T(+1)=U, I(0)=I, C(+1)=D, A(+1)=B, T(-1)=S, E(-1)=D.

The exact shift sequence is: -1, -1, +1, +1, 0, +1, +1, -1, -1.

Applying this sequence to STATISTIC: S(-1)=R, T(-1)=S, A(+1)=B, T(+1)=U, I(0)=I, S(+1)=T, T(+1)=U, I(-1)=H, C(-1)=B. This yields RSBUITUHB.

Question 33

CODE = 15161991, STEP = 18769122, SPOTE = ?
  • A. 1822761691
  • B. 1822167691
  • C. 1816227691
  • D. None of the above
Ans. B
Sol.

Replace each letter with its alphabetical position:
S = 19
P = 16
O = 15
T = 20
E = 5

Using the same coding pattern as the examples, the correct code is 1822167691.

Question 34

If E = 5, PEN = 35, then PAGE = ?
  • A. 27
  • B. 28
  • C. 29
  • D. 36
Ans. C
Sol.

Letter values:
P = 16
A = 1
G = 7
E = 5

Total = 16 + 1 + 7 + 5 = 29

Hence, the correct answer is 29.

Question 35

DE : 10 :: HI : ?
  • A. 17
  • B. 81
  • C. 64
  • D. 121
Ans. C
Sol.

D = 4, E = 5 → Sum = 9 → Next perfect square = 10 (given).
H = 8, I = 9 → Sum = 17. The matching option based on the intended pattern is 64 (8²).

Hence, option (c).

Question 36

Which of the following figure will come next?

Question 36 Matrix

  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. C
  • d. D
Answer: C
Solution:

The visual pattern shows a circle gaining internal intersecting lines, followed by a diamond shape. To complete the analogy, the diamond shape must also gain the same internal intersecting lines, which is depicted in option C.

Question 37

Which of the following figure will come next?

Question 37 Shapes Grid

  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. C
  • d. D
Answer: A
Solution:

The small arrow/triangle shapes alternate their pointing directions (vertical and horizontal) in a strict alternating sequence, which is accurately continued by option A.

Question 38

Which figure comes in the box with?

Question 38 Symbol Matrix

  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. C
  • d. D
Answer: A. *
Solution:

The symbol matrix consists of rows forming logical mirrored pairs. The first row @#$ mirrors to $#@ in the second row, separated by the < operator. The third row %^& mirrors to &%^ in the fourth row, separated by the * operator. Therefore, * completes the pair.

Question 39

Which set the figure-1 belongs to?

Question 39 Set Mapping

  • a. set A
  • b. set B
  • c. Neither A nor B
  • d. Both A and B
Answer: A. Set A
Solution:

Set A contains geometric faces with “U” shaped (upward/smiling) curves. Set B contains faces with inverted “U” (downward/frowning) curves. Figure-1 features a “U” shaped curve, assigning it to Set A.

Question 40

Which is closely assembled mirror image of the following?

Question 40 Mirror Options

  • a. 1
  • b. 2
  • c. 3
  • d. 4
Option (2) / B. 2
Solution:

A mirror image horizontally flips the entire sequence and every individual character from right to left. Option 2 perfectly depicts the mirrored string “21Q34SNA”.

Question 41

Group the images into three classes using each one only once.

Question 41 Shape Grouping

  • a. 123, 456, 789
  • b. 135, 246, 789
  • c. 169, 258, 347
  • d. 168, 257, 349
Answer: C. 169,258,347
Solution:

The logic is grouping by the number of geometric sides. Images 1, 6, and 9 are 3-sided (Triangles). Images 2, 5, and 8 are 4-sided (Quadrilaterals). Images 3, 4, and 7 are 5-sided (Pentagons).

Question 42

Find the missing quadrant to complete the figure:

Question 42 Grid Completion

  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. C
  • d. D
Answer: D
Solution:

Option D supplies the exact missing top-right quadrant of the circular arc and nested grid to complete the larger circle.

Question 43

Find the missing centerpiece to complete the design:

Question 43 Pattern Fill

  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. C
  • d. D
Answer: C
Solution:

Option C provides the missing top-right symmetric corner tile needed to complete the square mandala design.

Question 44

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
  • a. 65
  • b. 82
  • c. 67
  • d. 101
Ans. A
Sol.

Pattern:
2 + 3 = 5
5 + 5 = 10
10 + 7 = 17
17 + 9 = 26
26 + 11 = 37
37 + 13 = 50

Next: 50 + 15 = 65

Therefore, the correct answer is 65.

Question 45

21 : 3 :: 574 : ?
  • a. 23
  • b. 82
  • c. 97
  • d. 113
Answer: B. 82
Solution:

The mathematical relationship between the first pair is a division by 7 (21 / 7 = 3).

Applying the exact same logic to the second number: 574 / 7 = 82.

Question 46

Find the image which contains the image in X:

Question 46 Pattern Search

  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. C
  • d. D
Answer: C
Solution:

By visually scanning the complex patterns, the specific central geometric cross-pattern of image X is fully embedded and hidden within the line art of option C.

Question 47

Which of the following figure will come next?

Question 47 Stacking Shapes

  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. C
  • d. D
Answer: A
Solution:

The sequence shows shapes stacking and nesting progressively. Option A logically continues the visual structural sequence by adding the next concentric triangle.

Question 48

Find the matching missing pair element:

Question 48 Splitting Logic

  • a. 1
  • b. 2
  • c. 3
  • d. 4
Answer: Option (1) / A
Solution:

The first pair demonstrates an hourglass shape being split vertically into two half-circles facing away from each other. Applying this splitting logic, the hexagon splits vertically into the two distinct halves depicted in Option 1.

Question 49

Complete the missing tile matrix element:

Question 49 Intersecting Circles

  • a. 1
  • b. 2
  • c. 3
  • d. 4
Answer: Option (3) / C
Solution:

The matrix governs the progressive rotation and placement of small black circles on the intersecting spokes. Option 3 accurately completes the sequence for the final empty grid box.

Question 50

589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?
  • a. 58965
  • b. 65423
  • c. 89654
  • d. 96542
Ans. D
Sol.

The sequence removes digits alternately from the beginning and the end:

589654237
89654237 (remove first digit)
8965423 (remove last digit)
965423 (remove first two digits)
96542 (remove last digit)

Hence, the correct answer is 96542.

Post Office Exam Questions

Question 51

How many days of Post office holidays are observed Pan India as per the PO Guide Part-1?
  • A. 12 days
  • B. 11 days
  • C. 10 days
  • D. 6 days
Answer: B. 11 days
Solution:
According to the Post Office Guide Part-1, there are 11 gazetted holidays that are observed uniformly (Pan-India) across all postal circles. An additional 5 holidays are chosen locally by each individual Circle.

Question 52

If a person after taking delivery of an article refuses to pay the dues, then:

i. it can be recovered as fine imposed under Post office Act
ii. All personal business articles addressed to him can be withheld till the charges are recovered/paid
iii. India Government Service articles may be delivered even he has not paid the dues
  • A. Only i is correct
  • B. Only ii is correct
  • C. i & ii are correct
  • D. All are correct
Answer: C. i & ii are correct
Solution:
Under Section 12 of the Indian Post Office Act, any customs duty or postal dues left unpaid after delivery can be recovered from the addressee as if it were a fine. Furthermore, the post office is legally authorized to withhold any subsequent postal articles addressed to that individual until the outstanding amount is cleared. Official government service articles do not receive an exception from unpaid dues upon refusal.

Question 53

Any complaint on overcharge on the amount marked as due on any article is to be given to:
  • A. Postman before delivery but before opening
  • B. Postman after delivery but before opening
  • C. Postmaster of office of delivery but before opening
  • D. Postmaster of office of delivery even after delivery
Answer: C. Postmaster of office of delivery but before opening
Solution:
If an addressee disputes the postage or customs duty marked as “due” on a mail article, the complaint must be officially lodged with the Postmaster of the delivery office before the article is opened or accepted.

Question 54

Which of the following CANNOT be delivered through the Post box?
  • A. Unregistered articles addressed to the family members of renter
  • B. Unregistered articles addressed to the legitimate personnel of the firm renting the Post box
  • C. Speed post addressed to the renter or his family members
  • D. Unregistered articles addressed to the trainees or inmates of the institute renting the Post box
Answer: C. Speed post addressed to the renter or his family members
Solution:
Post boxes are strictly intended for the delivery of fully prepaid, unregistered articles of the letter mail. Accountable, registered mail items like Speed Post, Registered Letters, and Parcels cannot be dropped into a standard Post box and must be signed for.

Question 55

When a liquid is considered as Inflammable?
  • A. When it has the flashing point below 200°F
  • B. When it has the flashing point below 100°F
  • C. When it has the flashing point above 100°F
  • D. When it has the flashing point above 200°F
Answer: B. When it has the flashing point below 100°F
Solution:
Under postal transmission safety rules, any liquid substance that possesses a flashpoint lower than 100°F is legally classified as hazardous and inflammable, putting strict restrictions on its carriage by mail.

Question 56

Approval for payment of Money orders payable to students of an educational institution to the Head of Institution is to be given by:
  • A. Head of the Division
  • B. Head of the Circle
  • C. Head of the Region
  • D. Head of the Sub Division
Answer: A. Head of the Division
Solution:
To streamline distributions in bulk student housing or universities, the Head of the Postal Division (such as the SP or SSP) holds the administrative authority to permit the payment of incoming student money orders directly to the designated Head of the Institution.

Question 57

Postal Identity cards will be issued by:
  • A. Head Post offices
  • B. Sub Post offices
  • C. Branch Post offices
  • D. All the above
Answer: A. Head Post offices
Solution:
Postal Identity Cards, useful for the public to establish their identity for postal transactions, are strictly processed and officially issued by Head Post Offices (HOs).

Question 58

Instructions on change of address is ordinarily be valid for:
  • A. 1 year
  • B. 6 months
  • C. 3 months
  • D. 3 years
Answer: C. 3 months
Solution:
An official written instruction given by a resident to redirect mail due to a change of address remains legally operative for a standard window of 3 months from its receipt.

Question 59

Refused articles sent to Returned Letter office are to be treated in the manner prescribed for:
  • A. the articles addressed to deceased persons
  • B. the articles addressed to Lunatic
  • C. the articles the addresses which cannot be found
  • D. the articles addressed to the persons in prison
Answer: C. the articles the addresses which cannot be found
Solution:
When an article is explicitly refused by the addressee and reaches the Returned Letter Office (RLO), it is processed under the exact operational protocol applied to untraceable articles whose destination addresses cannot be identified.

Question 60

Complaints about the deficiency in service in a first class post office should be addressed to:
  • A. Postmaster of the office
  • B. Sub Divisional Head concerned
  • C. Divisional Head concerned
  • D. Head of the Circle
Answer: A. Postmaster of the office
Solution:
A First Class Postmaster exercises the same administrative and disciplinary powers as a Divisional Superintendent concerning their immediate office. Therefore, service deficiency complaints regarding a first-class post office should be escalated directly to the Postmaster managing that office.

Question 61

Sender of foreign article has submitted an application for recall of article by paying the prescribed fee for recall and the air surcharge to recall the article by air and the request has been forwarded to the country of destination but the article has been delivered to the addressee before the request for recall reaches. In such case which of the following is refundable?
  • A. Air surcharge only
  • B. Fee for recall of article and the air surcharge paid for recalling the article by Air
  • C. Only the fee paid for Recall of article
  • D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
Solution:
Once a recall request has been fully processed, transmitted, and forwarded to the international destination country, all service fees and associated air surcharges are considered fully spent. No refunds are given if the physical delivery beats the speed of the recall request.

Question 62

How long the foreign inward article addressed “Poste Restante” can be detained in the office of delivery?
  • A. 7 days excluding VP article
  • B. 15 days excluding VP article
  • C. Not exceeding 1 month except VP article
  • D. No limit
Answer: C. Not exceeding 1 month except VP article
Solution:
Foreign inward mail items explicitly marked as “Poste Restante” (to be held at the post office until called for) are allowed to be detained at the delivery office for a maximum period not exceeding 1 month (with explicit exceptions for Value Payable items).

Question 63

Foreign Inward air mail articles can be re-directed to other countries by air, if:
  • A. Air surcharge is paid in advance in India
  • B. An undertaking to pay the surcharge at the time of delivery is given in India
  • C. Cannot be redirected by Air
  • D. Can be redirected by Air without any charges
Answer: A. Air surcharge is paid in advance in India
Solution:
For an incoming international airmail article to be redirected onward to another foreign country via air routing, the requisite international air surcharge must be prepaid in advance within India.

Question 64

Addressee of a Foreign Inward Parcel refuses to take delivery of the parcel which was detained even after 7 days, then the ware housing charges will be:
  • A. Cancelled and the parcel will be returned to the sender as per the advice of the sender while booking the parcel
  • B. Collected from the sender while delivering the parcel back to the sender as per his advice while booking the parcel
  • C. Collected from the addressee otherwise no further article will be delivered to him
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B. Collected from the sender while delivering the parcel back to the sender as per his advice while booking the parcel
Solution:
When a foreign inward parcel remains unclaimed or is explicitly refused by the recipient, the accumulated warehousing/demurrage charges accrued after the initial free period are recovered from the original sender when the parcel is returned to them.

Question 65

Foreign Inward Parcel can also be delivered in the Office of exchange itself, if:
  • A. Approval from the Head of the Circle is received
  • B. Approval from the Head of the Division is received
  • C. The addressee produces proper proof of identity
  • D. It cannot be delivered by Office of Exchange
Answer: C. The addressee produces proper proof of identity
Solution:
International inward parcels are occasionally permitted to be directly cleared and collected right at the designated Office of Exchange, provided that the addressee presents themselves in person and provides verified proof of identity.

Question 66

Importing any life saving equipment by an individual by Post is permitted if:
  • A. Prior approval is obtained from the Head of the Circle
  • B. Individual cannot import and only hospital are permitted
  • C. It is for their personal use on production of essentiality certificate from any medical authority
  • D. It is for their personal use on production of essentiality certificate from the Government medical authority
Answer: D. It is for their personal use on production of essentiality certificate from the Government medical authority
Solution:
Individuals can legally import life-saving medical equipment through the postal system for their personal treatment, subject to producing an official “Essentiality Certificate” issued by an authorized Government medical authority.

Question 67

The complaints related to Foreign articles need to be submitted before lapse of 1 year from the:
  • A. day following the day of posting
  • B. day of posting
  • C. day of delivery
  • D. No time limit
Answer: A. day following the day of posting
Solution:
Under international Universal Postal Union (UPU) and India Post guidelines, inquiries or complaints relating to international/foreign mail items must be formally lodged within exactly 1 year, counting from the day following the day the article was posted.

Question 68

In case of complaints relating to delay in delivery, production of:
  • A. Letter signed by the witness in whose presence the article delivered is was mandatory
  • B. Wrapper is mandatory
  • C. Receipt issued at the time of booking is mandatory
  • D. All the above are mandatory
Answer: B. Wrapper is mandatory
Solution:
When filing an investigation claim for a delayed delivery, the physical outer cover or wrapper of the delivered article must be produced by the complainant, as it bears the essential transit postmarks and date stamps required to trace the delay path.

Question 69

No compensation will be paid:
  • A. In case of uninsured parcels containing articles for which Insurance is compulsory
  • B. Where the parcel is seized by virtue of legislation of the country through which it is passed
  • C. Where the parcels contained anything that is prohibited for transmission by post
  • D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
Solution:
India Post is legally exempt from paying any financial indemnity or compensation if a parcel contains items legally requiring mandatory insurance but sent uninsured, if the parcel is confiscated by the legal customs laws of a transit country, or if it contains materials explicitly prohibited from postal transmission.

Question 70

Export and import of Gold, Currency Notes and Coins is permitted only under the license from:
  • A. Ministry of Finance
  • B. Reserve Bank of India
  • C. Ministry of Foreign Affairs
  • D. Ministry of Commerce
Answer: B. Reserve Bank of India
Solution:
The movement of precious bullion, active paper currency, and coins across international borders via the mail stream is highly regulated and strictly prohibited unless accompanied by a valid license issued directly by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Question 71

DIGIPIN Means:
  • A. Digital Postal Index Node
  • B. Digital Postal Index Numeral
  • C. Digital Postal Identification Number
  • D. Digital Postal Identification Numeral
Answer: A. Digital Postal Index Node
Solution:
DIGIPIN stands for Digital Postal Index Node. It is a modern geo-spatial addressing initiative introduced to establish a standardized digital address grid mapping system across India.

Question 72

Expand – NRSC
  • A. Numeric Remote Sensing Centre
  • B. National Remote Sensing Centre
  • C. National Remote Sensor Centre
  • D. National Rural Sensing Centre
Answer: B. National Remote Sensing Centre
Solution:
NRSC is the National Remote Sensing Centre, a core wing of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) responsible for managing satellite earth observation data and remote sensing technologies.

Question 73

APT has been hosted on?
  • A. MeghRaj 1.0 Cloud
  • B. Meghdoot 2.0 Cloud
  • C. Meghdoot 1.0 Cloud
  • D. MeghRaj 2.0 Cloud
Answer: A. MeghRaj 1.0 Cloud
Solution:
The application suite handles architectural setups deployed on the national MeghRaj GI Cloud computing architecture infrastructure setup by the Government of India.

Question 74

Who is the GIS partner of India Post for enabling access to high resolution imagery and street level base maps for DIGIPIN?
  • A. Tata Consultancy Services
  • B. Infosys
  • C. ESRI India Technologies Limited
  • D. Zoho
Answer: C. ESRI India Technologies Limited
Solution:
India Post partnered with ESRI India Technologies Limited as its specialized Geographic Information System (GIS) tech provider to map high-resolution imagery database networks for establishing the DIGIPIN mapping framework.

Question 75

MAPPLS is also known as:
  • A. MapmyIndia
  • B. Mapmypopularlittlestate
  • C. Mapmypeoplestate
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A. MapmyIndia
Solution:
Mappls is the digital map platform and brand name owned and operated by the indigenous Indian digital mapping company MapmyIndia.

Question 76

What is the portal of KNOW YOUR DIGIPIN?
Answer: A. https://dac.indiapost.gov.in
Solution:
The official online portal established by the Department of Posts to access and locate digital coordinate grid details via the address system is hosted at the URL https://dac.indiapost.gov.in.

Question 77

MoU means:
  • A. Memorandum of Acceptance
  • B. Memorandum of User understanding
  • C. Memorandum of Uniformity
  • D. Memorandum of Understanding
Answer: D. Memorandum of Understanding
Solution:
An MoU stands for a Memorandum of Understanding, which is a formal bilateral or multilateral agreement outline establishing cooperative terms between distinct operational parties.

Question 78

Which of the IIT collaborated with DoP in developing DIGIPIN?
  • A. IIT, Chennai
  • B. IIT, Hyderabad
  • C. IIT, Kolkatta
  • D. IIT, Roorkee
Answer: B. IIT, Hyderabad
Solution:
IIT Hyderabad collaborated technically as the core academic research and development partner alongside the Department of Posts (DoP) to mathematically conceptualize the multi-layered geo-spatial network design behind DIGIPIN.

Question 79

What is the period of IT 2.0?
  • A. 2022-23 to 2029-30
  • B. 2023-24 to 2030-31
  • C. 2024-25 to 2031-32
  • D. 2022-23 to 2026-27
Answer: A. 2022-23 to 2029-30
Solution:
The IT Modernization Project 2.0 initiative of the Department of Posts is planned to steer long-term structural transformations over an extended strategic timeline mapping from fiscal years 2022-23 to 2029-30.

Question 80

DREAM means:
  • A. Digital Rural Experience Application for Mobile
  • B. Digital Rural Expertise Application for Mobile
  • C. Digital Rural Enterprise Android App for Mobile
  • D. Digital Rural Enterprise Application for Mobile
Answer: D. Digital Rural Enterprise Application for Mobile
Solution:
DREAM is the acronym for Digital Rural Enterprise Application for Mobile, a digital workflow platform aimed at optimizing field actions for rural branch post offices.

Question 81

Match the following:
Scheme CodePostal Insurance Policy NameOption CodeCore Structural Product
ISurakshaiAnticipated Endowment Assurance
IISuvidhaiiEndowment Assurance
IIISanthoshiiiWhole Life Assurance
IVSumangalivConvertible Whole Life Assurance
  • A. I-iii, II-iv, III-ii, IV-i
  • B. I-iii, II-i, III-ii, IV-iv
  • C. I-iii, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
  • D. I-iii, II-iv, III-i, IV-ii
Answer: A. I-iii, II-iv, III-ii, IV-i
Solution:
In Postal Life Insurance (PLI):
Suraksha matches with Whole Life Assurance (I -> iii)
Suvidha matches with Convertible Whole Life Assurance (II -> iv)
Santhosh matches with Endowment Assurance (III -> ii)
Sumangal matches with Anticipated Endowment Assurance / Money Back (IV -> i)

Question 82

In Bal Jeevan Bima Scheme, if the parent expired before the Policy matured, then:
  • A. Maturity value will be paid immediately
  • B. Maturity value will be paid on completion of term but premia need not be paid
  • C. Maturity value will be paid immediately if customer desires
  • D. Maturity value will be paid on completion of term if premia continue to be paid by the child or legal heir
Answer: B. Maturity value will be paid on completion of term but premia need not be paid
Solution:
Under the Children Policy (Bal Jeevan Bima), if the main policyholder parent passes away mid-term, the child’s cover remains fully active without requiring any future premium payments. The full maturity benefits are paid out at the end of the original term.

Question 83

If the Policy is more than 3 years duration, then the policy lapses if no premia paid for:
  • A. More than 6 months
  • B. More than 12 months
  • C. More than 24 months
  • D. More than 36 months
Answer: B. More than 12 months
Solution:
For a policy that has run actively for more than 3 years, a non-payment of monthly premiums extending beyond 12 months will cause the policy to officially lapse. (Policies active for less than 3 years lapse if premiums are missed for more than 6 months).

Question 84

The facility of automatic credit of monthly interest of MIS account to the SB account of depositors at the designated bank of their choice is:
  • A. available in India Post and offered through ECS service
  • B. available in India Post and offered through UPI service
  • C. not available in India Post
  • D. available in India Post and offered through IMPS service
Answer: A. available in India Post and offered through ECS service
Solution:
India Post offers an automated service where the monthly interest earned from a Post Office Monthly Income Scheme (MIS) account can be transferred directly to a depositor’s savings account at a commercial bank using the ECS (Electronic Clearing Service) platform.

Question 85

Which of the following scheme has been launched to support Covid-19 affected children?
  • A. PM Cares for children
  • B. SSA
  • C. PPF
  • D. MSSC
Answer: A. PM Cares for children
Solution:
The PM CARES for Children scheme was launched by the Government of India to support children who lost both parents or legal guardians to the COVID-19 pandemic, providing them with structured financial support and education access.

Question 86

What is the lock-In Period for Pre-mature closure of NSC, generally?
  • A. 6 months
  • B. 2 years
  • C. 3 years
  • D. 5 years
Answer: D. 5 years
Solution:
Generally, a National Savings Certificate (NSC) has a structural maturity lock-in of 5 years. It cannot be closed prematurely except under extreme circumstances such as the death of the holder or an explicit court order.

Question 87

What is the charges for transfer of SB account from one PO to another?
  • A. No charges
  • B. Rs.100
  • C. Rs.50
  • D. No charges for the first time and Rs.100 for every subsequent time
Answer: B. Rs.100
Solution:
A statutory service processing fee of Rs. 100 (plus applicable GST) is charged to transfer a Post Office Savings Bank (POSB) account from one post office to another.

Question 88

When the penalty will be charged for the BNPL customer and at what rate?
  • A. If the bill is not paid even after 7 days from the date of release of bill and 12%
  • B. If the bill is not paid even after the last day of the month in which the bill is released and 10%
  • C. If the bill is not paid even after the last day of the month in which the bill is released and 12%
  • D. If the bill is not paid even after 7 days from the date of release of bill and 10%
Answer: C. If the bill is not paid even after the last day of the month in which the bill is released and 12%
Solution:
Under Book Now Pay Later (BNPL) bulk contract terms for corporate clients, if a bill is not cleared by the last day of the month in which it was generated, a penalty interest charge is levied at a rate of 12% per annum.

Question 89

Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted by Gyan Post?
  • A. Syllabus books of educational universities for their students
  • B. Books containing literature related to the cultural heritage of India but not published under regular interval
  • C. Books containing literature related to the cultural heritage of India but published under regular interval
  • D. Text books used by aspirants of various competitive exams
Answer: C. Books containing literature related to the cultural heritage of India but published under regular interval
Solution:
Printed books or periodicals published at regular, fixed intervals are classified as Periodicals/Registered Newspapers and must use standard newspaper or parcel rates. They are ineligible for transmission under the specialized Gyan Post guidelines, which are reserved for irregular educational literature or text materials.

Question 90

Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted by Post?
  • A. Laptops with batteries properly packed by Air
  • B. Laptops without batteries
  • C. Laptops with batteries properly packed but only by Surface
  • D. All the above
Answer: A. Laptops with batteries properly packed by Air
Solution:
Lithium-ion batteries present an airborne fire hazard and are completely restricted from commercial airmail transport networks. Laptops with batteries can only be transmitted domestically using Surface transport channels.

Question 91

Who is responsible for the safe custody of service books of employees of the Division?
  • A. Head of the Division
  • B. Head Postmaster
  • C. APM (Accounts)
  • D. Accountant of HO
Answer: A. Head of the Division
Solution:
The safe preservation, upkeep, and administrative custody of official service books for all postal staff working across a non-gazetted division rests entirely with the Head of the Division (SP/SSP).

Question 92

Orders passed by Head Postmaster of HO are recorded in:
  • A. Order book
  • B. Hand to hand receipt book
  • C. Postmaster’s order book
  • D. Rough book
Answer: C. Postmaster’s order book
Solution:
Internal administrative changes, station directions, or orders passed daily by the Head Postmaster are officially recorded in the Postmaster’s Order Book.

Question 93

Which of the following is permissible without additional charges?

i. Delivered unregistered letter can be reposted with revised address within the local limits of the same town
ii. Parcel before delivery can be redirected to another address within the same town
iii. Parcel before delivery can be redirected to another address NOT within the same town
  • A. i only
  • B. i and ii only
  • C. All i, ii & iii
  • D. iii only
Answer: B. i and ii only
Solution:
Redirection within the same delivery post office town or local municipality lines is free for unregistered letters and parcels before delivery takes place. However, redirecting a heavy parcel outside the original delivery town limits requires paying additional redirection fees equal to half the normal postage rate.

Question 94

In HOs, if the Sub Accounts PA looks after the duties of Mail or Sorting Assistant, then the account bag has to be sealed with:
  • A. Cash seal in red sealing wax
  • B. Sub Accounts seal in black sealing wax
  • C. Both seals of cash and sub accounts in red and black respectively
  • D. No seals are required
Answer: A. Cash seal in red sealing wax
Solution:
In situations where the Sub Accounts Postal Assistant handles operational sorting or mail duties concurrently inside a Head Office, the account bag must be securely closed using the distinctive Cash Seal using red sealing wax to maintain security.

Question 95

When the cash remitted through overseer by the SPM through a closed cash bag, then the details of cash bag with amount of remittance is to be entered in the Diary of the overseer by:
  • A. The SPM concerned
  • B. The Treasurer
  • C. The overseer
  • D. The Sub Accounts Assistant
Answer: A. The SPM concerned
Solution:
When a Sub-Postmaster (SPM) sends a closed cash bag containing currency to another office via a transit mail overseer, the SPM concerned must personally write the bag details and remittance amount into the overseer’s physical transit diary.

Question 96

Portfolio will be supplied to:
  • A. Each section
  • B. Each set of a section
  • C. Each Sorting Assistant
  • D. Each Head Sorting Assistant
Answer: B. Each set of a section
Solution:
In the Railway Mail Service (RMS), a comprehensive operational portfolio box containing essential stamps, seals, forms, and guides is supplied to each set of a section.

Question 97

Hand bag will be supplied to:
  • A. Each sorting assistant of the section
  • B. Each Mail guard of the section
  • C. Each van attendant of the section
  • D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
Solution:
Personal functional canvas handbags used to carry official equipment during shifts are supplied to sorting assistants, mail guards, and van attendants working within a transit section.

Question 98

In case of sudden illness of the staff on duty at Section, it should be reported without delay to:
  • A. The Guard of the train
  • B. Superintendent of RMS Division
  • C. Both a and b
  • D. Head Record officer
Answer: C. Both a and b
Solution:
If an RMS employee falls suddenly ill during a train transit shift, it must be reported immediately to the Train Guard for urgent medical assistance, as well as to the RMS Division Superintendent so a relief worker can be arranged.

Question 99

B orders of Superintendent are copied in _______ by the record officer.
  • A. Guard file
  • B. Order book
  • C. Guidance book
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C. Guidance book
Solution:
Official “B” Orders issued by the RMS Superintendent deal with regular structural updates and sorting changes. They are preserved and transcribed by the Record Officer directly into the station Guidance Book.

Question 100

Which is called Central Bag Office?
  • A. Situated in Circle Head quarters
  • B. Situated in Divisional Head quarters
  • C. Situated in Regional Head quarters
  • D. ‘D’ section of Postal Directorate
Answer: D. ‘D’ section of Postal Directorate
Solution:
Under Postal Manual rules, the ‘D’ Section of the Postal Directorate in New Delhi acts as the Central Bag Office (CBO). It does not handle physical mail bags directly but regulates the general distribution, balance, and procurement rules for bags nationwide.

First, we are uploading all 23 Postal Circle question papers. Meanwhile, answer keys are being prepared. Additionally, unofficial keys will be updated as soon as they are available. Finally, official answer keys will also be added.

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