LDCE/LGO Postman, Mail Guard, MTS, GDS to PA/SA Exam Answer Key 17 Aug 2025

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LDCE/LGO Postman, Mail Guard, MTS, GDS to PA/SA Exam Answer Key 17 Aug 2025

The Department of Posts successfully conducted the Limited Departmental Competitive Examination (LDCE) / Lower Grade Officials (LGO) Exam on 17th August 2025 across all 23 Postal Circles of India.
This exam was held for promotion from Postman, Mail Guard, MTS, and GDS cadres to PA/SA (Postal Assistant / Sorting Assistant) posts.

Candidates who appeared in the exam are eagerly waiting for the answer key, solutions, and expected cut-off marks. Here, we provide circle-wise exam key updates and helpful resources.

Q.1. If no deposit/Withdrawal takes place in an account during continuous 3 financial years, the account shall be treated as

A) Discontinued Account

B) Non Live Account

C) Silent Account

D) None of the above

Ans.C

Explanation: According to the Post Office Savings Bank General Rules, an account with no transactions for three consecutive financial years is classified as a silent account.

Q.2. Fee for issue of Duplicate Passbook in Post Office

A) ₹ 20

B) ₹ 100

C) ₹ 50

D) No fee

Ans.C

Explanation: As per India Post rules, a fee of ₹50 is charged for issuing a duplicate passbook.

Q.3. Which of the following can be transferred from one person to another person subject to some conditions?

A) National Savings Certificate

B) Savings Account

C) Time Deposit account

D) All the above

Ans.A

Explanation:

National Savings Certificate (NSC): Can be transferred from one person to another under certain conditions (e.g., to close relatives, in case of death, with court order).

Q.4. ATM cards will not be issued to

A) Minor account and Joint A account

B) Pension account

C) Joint B account

D) All the above

Ans.A

Explanation: ATM cards are not issued for Minor accounts or for JOINT A

Q.5. Which one of the following account does not have the maximum limit of deposit per transaction?

A) TD account

B) SB account

C) MIS account

D) RD account

Ans.A

Explanation:

The Post Office Time Deposit (TD) account does not have a maximum limit for deposit per transaction. You can deposit any amount in this account, unlike the other listed account types which have specified maximum limits per transaction.

Q.6. No deposit made under Time Deposit shall be withdrawn before expiry of ____ period from the date of deposit.

A) For the period the account was opened originally

B) 12 months

C) 3 months

D) 6 months

Ans.D

Explanation: As per Post Office TD scheme rules, no withdrawal is permitted before the expiry of six months from the date of deposit.

Q.7. Suspicious transaction report should be filed on the same day to

A) Head of the Circle

B) Head of the Region

C) Sub Divisional Head

D) Head of the Division

Ans.D

Explanation: A Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) must be filed with the Head of the Division on the same day the transaction is identified.

Q.8. The Maximum number of TD accounts that can be opened by a customer in Post Office

A) One account only

B) Ten accounts

C) Two accounts in case of joint accounts

D) No limit

Ans.D

Explanation: There is no limit on the number of Time Deposit (TD) accounts that can be opened by a single customer.

Q.9. Interest for TD accounts are calculated ____ and payable ____

A) Annually, Quarterly

B) Quarterly, Annually

C) Half yearly, Annually

D) Quarterly, Half yearly

Ans.B

Explanation: Interest on Post Office Time Deposit accounts is calculated quarterly but is payable annually.

Q.10. SSA account can be closed prematurely after ____ years of account opening subject to conditions

A) 5 years

B) 21 years

C) Any time

D) 10 years

Ans.5

Explanation: The Sukanya Samriddhi Account (SSA) can be closed prematurely after five years from the date of account opening under specific conditions, such as the marriage of the account holder or for medical reasons.

Q.11. Head of the office should examine the complaints and suggestion book

A) Daily

B) Weekly

C) Monthly

D) Quarterly

Ans.A

Explanation:

48. B. Suggestions Complaint Book-(1) Complaint/Suggestion Book (M.S. 94) will be kept by all post offices and will be made available to all members of the public without their asking for it to record any complaint or suggestion regarding any service matter.
(2) The head of the office should examine the book daily at the end of each day and cases of complaints or suggestions which can be settled by the head of the office should be decided then and there and the nature of action taken thereon should be noted and signed with the date by the head of the office and the complainant informed of the action taken.

Q.12. If any article is reposted at the place of delivery without having been opened with revised address of the addressee, it should be treated as

A) Redirected article

B) Unpaid article

C) Unclaimed article

D) None of the above

Ans.A

Explanation: (3) In the case of an unclaimed unregistered article of the letter mail which has been received in the office of posting from the R. L. O. for redelivery to the sender—if the article is either returned to the postman or reposted at the place of delivery, without having been opened by the sender, with information as to the revised address of the addressee it should be treated as a redirected article and no additional postage should be charged on it.

Q.13. An Insured article addressed to a Minor will always be delivered to

A) Him/Her in the presence of the witness known to Postman and witness should attest the signature or thumb impression of the minor

B) Him/Her in the presence of a witness known to the minor

C) Him/Her in the presence of the person in whose care he/she may be living and that person should attest the signature or thumb impression of the minor

D) Should not be delivered

Ans.C

Explanation: Delivery of insured articles addressed to minors.—

An insured article addressed to a minor should always be delivered to him in the presence of the person in whose care he may be living at the time and after his signature or thumb-impression on the receipt and acknowledgment has been attested by that person.

Q.14. In case of Money Order lost after payment, then the office of payment should certify the payment in —

A) Memo of Approval of Payment

B) Memo of Authorisation of Payment

C) Memo of Acceptance of Payment

D) Memo of Admittance of Payment

Ans.D

Explanation: If a Money Order is lost after being paid, the paying office must certify the payment using a “Memo of Admittance of Payment.”

Q.15. The account bag received from SO should be opened by the

A) Sub Accounts PA in the presence of Treasurer

B) Mail PA in the presence of Treasurer

C) Treasurer in the presence of Sub account PA

D) Treasurer in the presence of Postmaster

Ans.C

Explanation: The account bag from a Sub Office (SO) is to be opened by the Treasurer in the presence of Sub account PA

Q.16. Explanations called for by the Superintendent for delivery to the concerned Sorting Assistants to be delivered under acquittance in

A) Hand to Hand receipt book

B) Guard file

C) Guidance book

D) Delivery book

Ans.D

Explanation: 136. Delivery book- (1) All communications from the Superintendent, calling for explanation of irregularities omitted by Sorting Assistants, are sent to the Record Officer for delivery to the persons concerned, and the replies to the communications are sent through the Record Officer to the Superintendent. A book must be kept in every Record Office

Q.17. TB orders received from the Superintendent should be

A) Pasted in the Guidance book

B) Filed separately in the Guard file

C) Sent to the set in loose folder

D) Filed along with the daily report

Ans.B

Explanation: B.Orders and TB orders.- (1) On receipt of a B order from the Superintendent, the Record Officer should have it neatly copied by one of the sorting assistants into the guidance book of each set concerned. The T.B. orders or the Tour orders received from the Superintendent should be filed separately in a guard file. The Record Officer should explain the meaning of the order to all Sorting Assistants including the Head Sorting Assistants or to the Mail Guard who should initial the order in evidence of having understood it

Q.18. OTA bills are to be prepared and submitted by the record officers once in

A) A month

B) Every 4 weekly cycle

C) A Fortnight

D) In a Quarter

Ans.B

Explanation: Overtime Allowance (OTA) bills are prepared and submitted by record officers once in every four-weekly cycle Monthly

Q.19. Preservation period of arrangement register of RMS offices are

A) 18 months

B) 12 months

C) 24 months

D) Permanent

Ans.A

Explanation: Eighteen months (In cases where

the Department is likely to be

Report involved in some loss, they should

be preserved till the monetary

responsibility is fixed.

Q.20. The Key of the cage TB should be forwarded

A) Loose through the mail agent concerned by hand

B) Along with mail list

C) In a sealed cover

D) Should not be forwarded

Ans.C

Explanation: The key of the cage Transit Bag (TB) must always be forwarded in a sealed cover for security reasons.

Q.21. The Franking machine will be set/reset by an officer not below the rank of

A) Divisional Head

B) Postmaster

C) Sub Divisional Inspector

D) Public Relations Inspector

Ans.D

Explanation: 21. The machine will be set/re-set by an officer of the Department not below the rank of Public Relations Inspector (Postal) at the premises of the Ministry Department on 1st or subsequent deposits made by the licencee. He (Officer of the Deptt.) will also seal the meter of the machine with his seal at the same time.

Q.22. Postage stamp should be affixed

A) On the left top corner of the articles

B) On the left bottom corner of the articles

C) On the right top corner of the articles

D) Anywhere on the articles

Ans.C

Explanation: The standard and correct position for affixing a postage stamp on a mail article is the right top corner.

Q.23. The customer residing in the delivery jurisdiction of the Post Office which does not provide Post Box facility, then the customer

A) Can avail Post Box facility from the Post Office in the same town which offers the facility irrespective of his delivery Jurisdiction.

B) Cannot avail Post Box facility

C) Can avail the facility from the same Post Office with the approval of Head of the Region

D) None of the above

Ans.A

Explanation: A customer can rent a Post Box from any Post Office within the same town that provides the facility, even if it is not their designated delivery Post Office.

Q.24. Insured articles and Money Orders addressed to students of Educational Institutions can be delivered to the Head of the Institutions

A) If approved by the Head of the Circle on Execution of Indemnity Bond

B) If approved by the Head of the Circle.

C) If approved by the Head of the Region on Execution of Indemnity Bond

D) If agreed by the Postman

Ans.A

Explanation: Delivery of insured articles and money orders to the head of an educational institution for students requires the approval of the Head of the Circle and the execution of an Indemnity Bond.

Q.25. Instructions on change of address are valid for

A) Six months

B) Three months

C) One year

D) Three Years

Ans.B

Explanation: 73. Period for which instructions valid.
Separate written instructions are required for every change of address; and instructions will not ordinarily be attended to for a longer period than three months, unless renewed within that time except in the case of persons leaving India when a longer period may be specified, if desired.

Q.26. Time limit for giving Complaint on loss or damage of a Registered/Insured articles

A) 12 months from the date of Posting

B) 3 months from the date of Posting

C) 6 months from the date of Posting

D) 2 months from the date of Posting

Ans.B

Explanation: The time limit for filing a complaint about the loss or damage of a registered or insured article is three months from the date of posting.

Q.27. Living creatures are prohibited for transmission by post

A) True

B) False

C) True except live bees

D) False except live bees

Ans.C

Explanation: Living creatures are generally prohibited from being sent via post, with a specific exception for live bees, which can be sent under certain conditions.

Q.28. Perfumes can be transmitted in Inland Post

A) If filled in a glass bottle and covered with a card board box.

B) Labelled as “Perfumes–keep away from fire”

C) Cannot be transmitted by Post.

D) Satisfying the conditions in A and B

Ans.D

Explanation: Perfumes, being flammable, can be transmitted via inland post only if they are properly packed in a glass bottle, cushioned with absorbent material, placed in a cardboard box, and also labeled as “Perfumes – keep away from fire.”

Q.29. Time limit for submission of application for attested copy of the original receipt signed by the addressee

A) Six months from the date of booking

B) Six months from the date of delivery

C) Six months from the date of receipt at the office of delivery

D) Three months from the date of delivery

Ans.B

Explanation: 169. Attested copies of receipts. –
The sender of a registered article may obtain an attested copy of the original receipt signed by the addressee on payment of the prescribed special fee provided that he makes his application for it within six months of the date on which the addressee signed the original receipt.

Q.30. Account holders of Philatelic Deposit Account may place standing order for supplies

A) Commemorative or special stamps

B) First Day covers

C) Collectors Pack

D) Printed Post card cancelled with special cancellation

Ans.A

Explanation: Philatelic Deposit Account holders can place standing orders for the automatic supply of new commemorative or special stamps as they are issued.

Q.31. Period of detention of undeliverable articles addressed to foreign countries

A) Seven days from the date of receipt at the office of delivery

B) Seven days from the date of receipt at office of Exchange

C) Fifteen days for all countries

D) Differs from country to country in accordance with the internal regulations of the country of destination

Ans.D

Explanation: 14. Delivery in the country of destination:
Articles are delivered in the country of destination according to their internal legislation and regulations and this varies widely from country to country. The Indian Postal Department is not responsible for the manner in which an article is delivered or returned undelivered if it is done in accordance with the legislation or regulations of the country of destination. The period of detention of undeliverable articles is also governed by the internal regulations of the country of destination.

Q.32. Undeliverable foreign mail is normally returned by

A) Surface mail

B) Surface mail unless air surcharge/combined charges are agreed to be paid on redelivery to the sender.

C) Air Mail

D) All the above

Ans.B

Explanation: Undeliverable mail is normally returned by surface unless the sender has specifically requested for their return by air, in which case the air surcharge or combined charge, as the case may be will be recovered from him at the time of redelivering of the article.

Q.33. Maximum and minimum weight prescribed for the Bulk bag is

A) 5 Kg and 30 Kg

B) 5 Kg and 20 Kg

C) 30 Kg and 5 Kg

D) No limit

Ans.C

Explanation: The maximum weight for a bulk bag is 30 Kg, and the minimum weight is 5 Kg.

Q.34. Living insects including Eggs may be imported by Post if

A) Accompanied with the certificate of freedom from disease granted by the entomologist of the Government of country of origin

B) Accompanied with the certificate of freedom from disease granted by the entomologist of the Government of India

C) Cannot be imported

D) Accompanied with the certificate of freedom from disease granted by any Veterinary doctor.

Ans.A

Explanation: Living insects including eggs may be imported by post if accompanied, in addition to a special permit issued by the Central Government or an officer authorized by the Central Government in this behalf, by a certificate of freedom from disease granted by an Entomologist of the Government of the country of origin.

Q.35. Plants except prohibited and restricted ones are allowed for transmission from foreign countries by –

A) Letter only

B) Any mail

C) Parcel only

D) Cannot be transmitted

Ans.C

Explanation: Plants, with some exceptions, are permitted for international transmission only as parcels.

Q.36. No compensation will be paid –

A) Where the parcel contained anything prohibited for transmission by Post

B) Uninsured parcels containing articles for which insurance is compulsory

C) Where the parcel has been seized by the Legislation of the country through which it is passing

D) All the above

Ans.D)

Explanation:

No compensation will be paid in all the following cases:

Where the parcel contained anything prohibited for transmission by Post.

Uninsured parcels containing articles for which insurance is compulsory.

Where the parcel has been seized by the legislation of the country through which it is passing.

All these scenarios are explicitly mentioned as exclusions from compensation under postal regulations.

Q.37. Time limit for submission of complaints and enquiries regarding Foreign letter/parcel mail is –

A) One year from the date of posting

B) One year from the day following the day of posting

C) One year from the date of delivery

D) None of the above

Ans.

Explanation: 200. Time limit for Enquiries and Complaints:

(a) Complaints and enquiries regarding articles of letter mail and parcel mail in the foreign post must be submitted before the lapse of one year counting from the day following the day on which the article was posted.

Q.38. Complaints on assessment of duty are to be dealt by –

A) Postal Department

B) Income Tax Department

C) Customs Department

D) None of the above

Ans.C

Explanation: (c) Complaints about the assessment of duty are dealt with only by the Customs authorities. The Principal Postal Appraisers and Postal Appraisers are officers of the
Customs Department and references received from them should be treated as emanating from the Customs Department.

Q.39. Receipts for customs duty paid can be issued by –

A) All Departmental Post Offices

B) Foreign Post Offices and Head Post Offices

C) All Post Offices including BO

D) Divisional Office

Ans.B

Explanation: The Foreign Post Offices and all Head Post Offices are authorized to issue receipts for Customs Duty paid if required by the addressee. The addressee should apply for such receipt at the time of delivery or immediately thereafter and not later than 10 days producing the wrapper of the article. If the -article is delivered through a sub-post office the application will be sent to concerned Head Post Office which will issue the receipt through the sub-Post Office

Q.40. Which of the following cannot be transmitted by foreign small Packets?

A) Gifts

B) Items of saleable value

C) Samples of merchandise

D) Book with a poem written by hand on the first page on the eve of the Birthday of the addressee

Ans.D

Explanation: Small packets are intended for items of commercial value like gifts, merchandise, and samples. A book with a personal handwritten message would fall under the category of a letter or personal correspondence, and thus cannot be sent as a small packet.

Q.41. Assignment of Development of IT 2.0 is being done by –

A) Centre for Excellence in Postal Terminology

B) Centre for Expertise in Postal Technology

C) Centre for Excellence in Postal Technology

D) Centre for Expertise in Post and Telecommunication

Ans.c

C) Centre for Excellence in Postal Technology

Exp.

The assignment of development for IT 2.0 is being managed by the Centre for Excellence in Postal Technology (CEPT), which specializes in postal technology solutions for the Department of Posts.

Q.42. Which of the following is not supplied to BOs under IT 2.0 –

A) Biometric devices

B) Thermal printers

C) Mobile hand sets

D) Signature scanners

Ans.D

Explanation: Under IT 2.0, the following items are supplied to Branch Offices (BOs):
Tablets (for Branch Postmasters),
Keyboards,
Mobile biometric scanners,
SIM/Rural connectivity.
These items enhance digital operations and service delivery. However, desktops or laptops are typically not supplied to BOs under IT 2.0, as the focus is on tablets and mobile devices for branch-level digital enablement. Desktops/laptops remain available mainly at departmental post offices, not at Branch Offices
Signature scanners not supplied

Q.43. DARPAN means –

A) Digital Advancement of Rural Post offices for a New India

B) Digital Appropriation of Rural Post offices for a New India

C) Digital Advancement of Rural Post offices for a Novel India

D) Digital Announcement of Rural Post offices for a New India

Ans.A

Explanation: DARPAN is an acronym for Digital Advancement of Rural Post offices for a New India.

Q.44. ERP means

A) Enterprise Resource Planning

B) Empower Resource Plan

C) Enthusiastic Rejuvenation Planning

D) Enterprise Recurrent Planning

Ans.A

Explanation: ERP stands for Enterprise Resource Planning, which is a system used for managing business processes.

Q.45. Department proposes to take forward IT infrastructure maintenance upgradation and technology refresh through IT 2.0 project beyond

A) April 2025

B) May 2022

C) January 2023

D) March 2022

Ans.

Explanation: The IT 2.0 project was extended to continue IT infrastructure maintenance, upgradation, and technology refresh beyond March 2022.

Q.46. Supply of SIM based Hand held devices to Branch offices are supplied by

A) Core System Integrator

B) Financial System Integrator

C) Financial Services Integrator

D) None of the above

Ans.D

In summary, handheld devices for Branch Offices are supplied by the appointed Rural Hardware vendor (TCIL/Ricoh/Minosha India Pvt Limited) for India Post.

Q.47. Postal Life Insurance services are being provided through

A) Core Insurance Solution

B) Competent Insurance Solution

C) Customised Insurance Solution

D) Core Integrated Services

Ans.A

Explanation: The Postal Life Insurance (PLI) services are managed and provided through the Core Insurance Solution (CIS) platform.

Q.48. Peripherals to mail offices are supplied under

A) Core System Integrator

B) Financial System Integrator

C) Rural System Integrator

D) None of the above

Ans.D

Explanation: Peripherals for mail offices are supplied under the Mail Operations System (MOS), which is integrated with the Core System Integrator, but the direct supplier is not one of the listed options. Therefore, the answer is None of the above.

Q.49. RICT means

A) Rural Information Communication Technology

B) Rural Information Correspondence Technology

C) Rural Information Communication Transformation

D) Rural Infrastructure Communication Technology

Explanation: RICT stands for Rural Information and Communication Technology.

Q.50. Primary Data centre of Department of Post is operational at:

A) Hyderabad

B) Navi Mumbai

C) New Delhi

D) Patna

Ans.B

Explanation: The primary data center of the Department of Post is located in Navi Mumbai.

ARITHMETIC

The expression is: $[(20 \times 13) \times {4 \div 4 \times (19 - 13) \div 3}]$

Solve the innermost parentheses first.
- $(19 - 13) = 6$
- The expression now becomes: $[(20 \times 13) \times {4 \div 4 \times 6 \div 3}]$
Solve the multiplication inside the first set of parentheses.
- $(20 \times 13) = 260$
- The expression is now: $[260 \times {4 \div 4 \times 6 \div 3}]$
Solve the operations within the curly braces, from left to right.
- $4 \div 4 = 1$
- $1 \times 6 = 6$
- $6 \div 3 = 2$
- The expression simplifies to: $[260 \times 2]$
Perform the final multiplication.
- $260 \times 2 = 520$

$[(91 \div 7) \times {(64 \div 4) + (17 - 6) + (8 - 2)}]$

Solve the expressions inside the parentheses.
- $(91 \div 7) = 13$
- $(64 \div 4) = 16$
- $(17 - 6) = 11$
- $(8 - 2) = 6$
The expression becomes: $[13 \times {16 + 11 + 6}]$
Solve the operations within the curly braces.
- $16 + 11 = 27$
- $27 + 6 = 33$
The expression becomes: $[13 \times 33]$
Perform the final multiplication.
- $13 \times 33 = 429$

3. In an Examination 80% candidates passed in English and 85% candidates passed in Mathematics. If 73% candidates passed in both these subjects, then what percent of candidates failed in both the subjects?

A) 8
B) 15
C) 27
D) 35

Answer: A) 8

Explanation:

First, find the total percentage of candidates who passed in at least one subject. We use the formula for unions of sets:
$P (Passed in English or Math) = P (English) + P (Math) - P (Both)$
Percentage Passed = $80% + 85% - 73% = 165% - 73% = 92%$ .
Now, to find the percentage of candidates who failed in both subjects, subtract the percentage of those who passed from 100%.
Percentage Failed = $100% - 92% = 8%$ .

4. The population of a town increase every year by 4%. If its present Population is 50,000, then after 2 year it will be

A) 53900
B) 54000
C) 54080
D) 55000

Answer: C) 54080

Explanation:

This is a compound growth problem. The population after 2 years can be calculated as:

Population after 1 year = $50, 000 \times (1 + 100 4) = 50, 000 \times 1.04 = 52, 000$ .
Population after 2 years = $52, 000 \times (1 + 100 4) = 52, 000 \times 1.04 = 54, 080$ .

5. A dealer incurs a loss of 5% if he sells an article for ₹. 1805. What price must he sell the article so as to gain 5% on that article?

A) ₹1990
B) ₹1995
C) ₹1980
D) ₹1985

Answer: B) ₹1995

Explanation:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be $x$ . The selling price (SP) with a 5% loss is $x - 0.05 x = 0.95 x$ .
We are given that $0.95 x = 1805$ .
To find the CP: $x = 0.95 1805 = 1900$ . So, the cost price is ₹1900.
To find the new selling price with a 5% profit, we calculate:
New SP = $1900 + (1900 \times \frac{5}{100}) = 1900 + 95 = ₹1995.

6. A shopkeeper purchased two varieties of rice, 80 KG at Rs.13.50 per KG and 120 KG at Rs.16 per KG. The shopkeeper being greedy, mixed the two varieties of rice and sold the mixture at a gain of 16%. Find the per KG selling price of the mixture.

A) ₹18.50
B) ₹17.40
C) ₹19
D) ₹20

Answer: B

Explanation:

Total Cost Price (CP):
- Cost of 80 KG rice = $80 \times 13.50 = 1080$ .
- Cost of 120 KG rice = $120 \times 16 = 1920$ .
- Total CP = $1080 + 1920 = 3000$ .
Total Quantity: $80 + 120 = 200$ KG.
Cost Price per KG of the mixture: $200 3000 = 15$ .
Selling Price (SP) of the mixture (with a 16% gain):
- SP = $3000 \times (1 + 100 16) = 3000 \times 1.16 = 3480$ .
Selling Price per KG of the mixture:
- SP per KG = $200 3480 = * * ₹17.40 * *$ .

7. A seller claims to sell at cost price but gives 750 gm for each KG. Find his gain percent.

A) 33.334%
B) 33%
C) 33.5%
D) 33.2%

Answer: A) 33.334%

Explanation:

The seller’s profit is the amount of weight he holds back.
Gain in weight = $1000 gm - 750 gm = 250 gm$ .
The gain percentage is calculated on the actual weight given (750 gm).
Gain % = $Actual Weight Gain \times 100 = 750 250 \times 100 = 3 1 \times 100 = * * 33.33% * *$ .

8. By selling a bicycle for ₹4275, a shopkeeper loses 5%. For how much should he sell it to have a profit of 5%?

A) ₹4765
B) ₹4755
C) ₹4775
D) ₹4725

Answer: D) ₹4725

Explanation:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be $x$ . A 5% loss means the selling price is $95%$ of the CP.
$0.95 \times x = 4275$ .
$x = 0.95 4275 = * * ₹4500 * *$ . So, the cost price of the bicycle is ₹4500.
To make a 5% profit, the new selling price should be:
New SP = $4500 \times (1 + 100 5) = 4500 \times 1.05 = * * ₹4725 * *$ .

9. If a company pays ₹6 lakh for 15 workers for 20 days, how much it would need to pay for 5 workers for 12 days?

A) ₹1.2 lakh
B) ₹1.5 lakh
C) ₹1.7 lakh
D) ₹1.3 lakh

Answer: A) ₹1.2 lakh

Explanation:

First, find the pay per worker per day.
Total pay = ₹6 lakh = ₹600,000.
Total worker-days = $15 workers \times 20 days = 300 worker-days$ .
Pay per worker per day = $300 600 , 000 = ₹2000$ .
Now, calculate the cost for the new scenario:
Required worker-days = $5 workers \times 12 days = 60 worker-days$ .
Total pay = $60 worker-days \times ₹2000/ worker-day = 120, 000$ .
₹120,000 is equal to ₹1.2 lakh.

10. A mat of length 180 m is made by 15 women in 12 days. How long will it take for 32 women to make a mat of length 512 m?

A) 16 days
B) 14 days
C) 15 days
D) 18 days

Answer: A) 16 days

Explanation:

This is a problem of man-hours (or in this case, woman-days) and work. We can use the formula: M1×D1Work1=M2×D2Work2

Work$_1$ = 180 m, M$_1$ = 15 women, D$_1$ = 12 days.
Work$_2$ = 512 m, M$_2$ = 32 women, D$_2$ = ?
$15 \times 12 180 = 32 \times D ^{2} 512$
$180 180 = 32 \times D ^{2} 512$
$1 = 32 \times D ^{2} 512$
$32 \times D_{2} = 512$
$D_{2} = 32 512 = * * 16 * *$ days.

11. Bharath offers his customers a discount of ₹50 on each shirt and still makes a profit of ₹100 per shirt. What is the actual Cost price of the shirt that is marked @ ₹800?

A) ₹700
B) ₹650
C) ₹850
D) ₹750

Answer: B) ₹650

Explanation:

First, we find the sale price by subtracting the discount from the marked price: Sale Price = Marked Price – Discount Sale Price = ₹800 – ₹50 = ₹750
Next, we find the cost price by subtracting the profit from the sale price: Cost Price = Sale Price – Profit Cost Price = ₹750 – ₹100 = ₹650

12. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

A) 3.6
B) 7.2
C) 8.4
D) 10

Answer: B) 7.2

Explanation:

Distance: $600 m = 0.6 km$ .
Time: $5 minutes = 60 5 hours = 12 1 hours$ .
Speed = $Time Distance$
Speed = $12 1 0.6 = 0.6 \times 12 = * * 7.2 km/hr * *$ .

13. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:

A) 50 Km
B) 56 Km
C) 70 Km
D) 80 Km

Answer: A) 50 Km

Explanation:

Let the time taken be $t$ hours.
According to the problem, the distance is related to speed and time.
$14 t - 10 t = 20$ .
$4 t = 20$ .
$t = 5$ hours.
The actual distance is the one he would have walked at 10 km/hr.
Actual distance = $10 km/hr \times 5 hours = * * 50 Km * *$ .

14. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is:

A) 70 Km/hr
B) 75 Km/hr
C) 80 Km/hr
D) 87.5 Km/hr

Answer: D) 87.5 Km/hr

Explanation:

Speed of the second train = $Time Distance = 4 hrs 400 km = 100 km/hr$ .
The ratio of speeds is $Speed ^{2} Speed ^{1} = 8 7$ .
$100 Speed ^{1} = 8 7$ .
Speed$_1$ = $8 7 \times 100 = 8 700 = * * 87.5 Km/hr * *$ .

15. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs.13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of interest earned in 2 years was ₹3508, what was the amount invested in scheme B?

A) ₹6400
B) ₹7500
C) ₹6500
D) ₹7000

Answer: A) ₹6400

Explanation:

Let the amount in scheme A be $A$ and in scheme B be $B$ .
$A + B = 13900$ .
Total simple interest (SI) = $S I_{A} + S I_{B} = 3508$ .
Using the formula $S I = 100 P \times R \times T$ :
$3508 = 100 A \times 14 \times 2 + 100 B \times 11 \times 2$
$3508 = 100 28 A + 100 22 B$
$350800 = 28 A + 22 B$ .
Substitute $A = 13900 - B$ :
$350800 = 28 (13900 - B) + 22 B$
$350800 = 389200 - 28 B + 22 B$
$350800 = 389200 - 6 B$
$6 B = 389200 - 350800 = 38400$
$B = 6 38400 = * * ₹6400 * *$ .

16. A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs. 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest?

A) 3%
B) 4%
C) 5%
D) 6%

Answer: D) 6%

Explanation:

Simple Interest (SI) = Amount – Principal = $15500 - 12500 = ₹3000$ .
Using the simple interest formula, $R = P \times T S I \times 100$ :
$R = 12500 \times 4 3000 \times 100 = 50000 300000 = * * 6% * *$ .

17. A lent Rs. 5000 to B for 2 years and Rs. 3000 to C for 4 years on simple interest at the same rate of interest and received Rs. 2200 in all from both of them as interest. The rate of interest per annum is

A) 7%
B) 6%
C) 8%
D) 10%

Answer: D) 10%

Explanation:

Let the rate of interest be $R$ .
Total interest = Interest from B + Interest from C = 2200.
$2200 = 100 5000 \times R \times 2 + 100 3000 \times R \times 4$
$2200 = 100 R + 120 R$
$2200 = 220 R$
$R = 220 2200 = * * 10% * *$ .

18. The average monthly salary of A and B is Rs. 7000. The average monthly salary of B and C is Rs. 8500, and the average monthly salary of A and C is Rs. 9000. What is the monthly salary of A?

A) Rs. 7500
B) Rs. 7000
C) Rs. 8000
D) Rs. 9000

Answer: A) Rs. 7500

Explanation:

From the given averages, we can write a system of equations:
- (1) $A + B = 7000 \times 2 = 14000$
- (2) $B + C = 8500 \times 2 = 17000$
- (3) $A + C = 9000 \times 2 = 18000$
Add the three equations together:
$(A + B) + (B + C) + (A + C) = 14000 + 17000 + 18000$
$2 (A + B + C) = 49000$
$A + B + C = 2 49000 = 24500$ .
Now, substitute equation (2) into this result to find A:
$A + (B + C) = 24500$
$A + 17000 = 24500$
$A = 24500 - 17000 = * * ₹7500 * *$ .

19. The average age of a father, mother, and their daughter 3 years ago was 30 years, and that of the mother and daughter 6 years ago was 25 years. What is the present age of the father?

A) 45 years
B) 40 years
C) 35 years
D) 42 years

Answer:

Calculate the sum of the family’s ages 4 years ago. The average age of the father, mother, and daughter was 30 years. There are 3 people.
- Sum of their ages = $30 \times 3 = 90$ years.
Calculate the sum of their present ages. Since this was 4 years ago, each of the 3 people is now 4 years older.
- Total increase in age = $4 \times 3 = 12$ years.
- Sum of their present ages = $90 + 12 = 102$ years.
Calculate the sum of the mother’s and daughter’s ages 6 years ago. The average age of the mother and daughter was 25 years. There are 2 people.
- Sum of their ages = $25 \times 2 = 50$ years.
Calculate the sum of the mother’s and daughter’s present ages. Since this was 6 years ago, each of the 2 people is now 6 years older.
- Total increase in age = $6 \times 2 = 12$ years.
- Sum of their present ages = $50 + 12 = 62$ years.
Find the father’s present age. To find the father’s age, subtract the combined present age of the mother and daughter from the combined present age of the entire family.
- Father’s present age = $102 - 62 = 40$ years.

20. A trader has sales of ₹7800, ₹8200, ₹7900, ₹8600, and ₹8100 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month to achieve an average sale of ₹8000?

A) ₹7400
B) ₹7500
C) ₹7600
D) ₹7600

Answer: A

Calculate the total sales for the first 5 months. $₹7800 + ₹8200 + ₹7900 + ₹8600 + ₹8100 = ₹40600$
Determine the total sales needed for 6 months to achieve the desired average. Since the average of 6 months should be ₹8000, the total sales must be: $₹8000 t im es 6 = ₹48000$
Find the required sale in the sixth month. Subtract the sum of the first 5 months’ sales from the total sales needed for 6 months: $₹48000 - ₹40600 = ₹7400COST$

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1.In which country, the First International Earth Summit with 100 heads of state was held in June 1992?

- Answer: Brazil
- Explanation: The first Earth Summit, a landmark event for environmental discussions, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

2.Which of the following rivers is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?

- Answer: Kosi
- Explanation: The Kosi River is infamous for its frequent and destructive flooding, which devastates large parts of Bihar every year, earning it the nickname ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.

3.Which plateau is known as the ‘Roof of the World’?

- Answer: Tibetan Plateau
- Explanation: The Tibetan Plateau is the world’s highest and largest plateau, making it the highest geographical feature of its kind and thus, the ‘Roof of the World’.

4.In India, which amendment to the Constitution is known for the right to education?

- Answer: 86th Amendment Act
- Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Indian Constitution, making the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a fundamental right.

5.What is the capital of the Union Territory of Ladakh?

- Answer: Leh
- Explanation: The Union Territory of Ladakh has two district headquarters, Leh and Kargil, which serve as its joint capital.

6.Which Indian leader is known for the slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’?

- Answer: Bhagat Singh
- Explanation: The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ (Long Live the Revolution) was popularized by freedom fighter Bhagat Singh during India’s struggle for independence.

7.The concept of ‘Satyagraha’ was first implemented by Mahatma Gandhi in which movement?

- Answer: Champaran Movement
- Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi’s first experiment with the non-violent protest method of ‘Satyagraha’ in India was in the Champaran Movement in 1917, against the exploitation of indigo farmers.

8.In ethical decision-making, which approach is primarily concerned with the rights and duties of individuals?

- Answer: Deontological ethics
- Explanation: Deontological ethics focuses on the morality of actions based on a set of rules, duties, or obligations, rather than on the consequences of those actions.

9.Which Indian artist is known for the creation of the paintings called “Madhubani”?

- Answer: The provided options are incorrect.
- Explanation: Madhubani is a traditional folk art form from the Mithila region. Prominent artists of this style include Ganga Devi and Mahasundari Devi. The options listed (Raja Ravi Varma, Jamini Roy, Gaganendranath Tagore, Nandalal Bose) are all well-known Indian artists but are not primarily associated with the Madhubani style.

10.The Sundarbans delta is formed by which of the following rivers?

- Answer: Ganga and Brahmaputra
- Explanation: The Sundarbans is a large mangrove forest and a UNESCO World Heritage Site located at the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers as they flow into the Bay of Bengal.

REASONING

Reasoning Questions with Solutions

1. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rita said, “He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my Husband”. How is the man on the stage related to Rita?

A) Cousin
B) Son
C) Nephew
D) Brother-in-law

Answer: B) Son

Explanation:

To solve this, we work backwards from Rita’s statement.

“My Husband’s wife” is Rita herself.
“The daughter of the wife” is Rita’s daughter.
“The brother of the daughter” is Rita’s son.
Therefore, the man on the stage is Rita’s son.

2. A party consists of Grandmother, Father, Mother, Four sons and their wives and one son and two daughters of each of the sons. How many females are there in all?

A) 14
B) 16
C) 18
D) 24

Answer: B) 16

Explanation:

Let’s count the females in the party:

Grandmother = 1
Mother = 1
Wives of the four sons = 4
Each of the four sons has two daughters. So, 4 sons × 2 daughters = 8.
Total females = 1 (Grandmother) + 1 (Mother) + 4 (Wives) + 8 (Daughters) = 14.

There seems to be an error in the provided options as the calculated answer is 14, not 16. However, if we assume the grandmother and mother are two different people, and one of the sons is married, and has a wife and two daughters, that’s not adding up. Let’s re-examine.

The question states one son and two daughters of each of the sons.

This means there are 4 sons, and each son has 2 daughters. The total number of daughters is 4 x 2 = 8.

The number of females is: Grandmother (1) + Mother (1) + 4 wives + 8 daughters = 14. The provided options may be incorrect.

3. Eye: Myopia :: Teeth: ??

A) Cataract
B) Trachoma
C) Eczema
D) Pyorrhoea

Answer: D) Pyorrhoea

Explanation:

Myopia is a common defect of the eye, also known as nearsightedness. Similarly, Pyorrhoea is a disease of the gums and teeth. The relationship is that of an organ and a disease that affects it.

4. Snake: Fang :: Bee: ??

A) Honey
B) Humming
C) Wax
D) Sting

Answer: D) Sting

Explanation:

A fang is the venomous tooth of a snake used for biting. A sting is the sharp, pointed organ of a bee used for injecting venom. Both are defensive or offensive body parts used to inject a substance.

5. Choose the number which is different from others in the group

A) 12
B) 25
C) 37
D) 49

Answer: C) 37

Explanation:

12 is a composite number (2 × 6, 3 × 4).
25 is a perfect square (5 × 5).
49 is a perfect square (7 × 7).
37 is a prime number, meaning it is only divisible by 1 and itself. This makes it the odd one out.

6. Which number would replace the question mark in the series 7, 12, 19, ?, 39.

A) 29
B) 26
C) 28
D) 24

Answer: C) 28

Explanation:

The pattern involves adding consecutive odd numbers to the previous term:

7 + 5 = 12
12 + 7 = 19
19 + 9 = 28
28 + 11 = 39

The missing number is 28.

7. There is a group of five persons, A, B, C, D and E… Who is the Professor of Psychology?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Answer: C) C

Explanation:

Let’s analyze the clues:

There are 3 professors (Philosophy, Psychology, Economics).
A and D are ladies, unmarried, and have no specialization in any subject. This means they are not the professors.
B is the brother of C and is neither a Psychologist nor an Economist. This means B is the Professor of Philosophy.
E is the husband in a married couple. The unmarried ladies are A and D. So, E’s wife must be C.
Since B is the Philosophy professor, the remaining two professors (Psychology and Economics) must be C and E.
The question implicitly asks to identify the Psychology professor, and based on this kind of riddle, C is the most likely candidate, leaving E as the Professor of Economics.

8. Which of the following Groups includes all men?

A) BC
B) BE
C) ABC
D) BCD

Answer: B) BE

Explanation:

From the previous question’s analysis:

A and D are ladies.
E is the husband (a male).
B is the brother of C (a male).
C is a female.
The only two men in the group are B and E. The group that includes all men is BE.

9. Who is the professor of Philosophy?

A) A
B) D
C) C
D) A

Answer: B) D

Explanation:

The options provided in the prompt are confusing. Let’s re-verify the information from the original image.

The question is part of the same reasoning block. From the previous question, we established that B is the Professor of Philosophy.

The options provided are incorrect. The correct answer is B.

10. Who is the wife of E?

A) C
B) D
C) A
D) B

Answer: A) C

Explanation:

As deduced from the initial logic puzzle:

A and D are unmarried ladies.
E is the husband in a married couple.
The only remaining person to be E’s wife is C.

11. Who is the professor of Economics?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E

Answer: D) E

Explanation:

B is the Professor of Philosophy.
A and D are not professors.
C is a professor (Psychology) as a part of the riddle solution.
This leaves E as the Professor of Economics.

12. A child is looking for his father… How far did the son meet his father from starting point?

A) 80 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 140 meters
D) 260 meters

Answer: B) 100 meters

Explanation:

This problem requires a diagram to visualize the path and solve using the Pythagorean theorem.

He goes 90m East.
He turns right (South) and goes 20m.
He turns right (West) and goes 30m.
He goes 100m North.

Net displacement:

East-West: 90m (East) – 30m (West) = 60m East.
North-South: 100m (North) – 20m (South) = 80m North.

The distance from the starting point is the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle with sides of 60m and 80m.

Using the formula: distance = side12+side22

Distance = 602+802

Distance = 3600+6400

Distance = 10000 = 100m.

13. If in a certain language, ENTRY is coded as 12345 and STEADY is coded as 931785, then state which is the correct code for NEATNESS.

A) 25196577
B) 21732199
C) 21362199
D) 21823698

Answer: B) 21732199

Explanation:

This is a direct substitution cipher. We can map each letter to its corresponding number from the given codes.

From ENTRY: E=1, N=2, T=3, R=4, Y=5
From STEADY: S=9, T=3, E=1, A=7, D=8, Y=5

Let’s find the code for NEATNESS:

N = 2
E = 1
A = 7
T = 3
N = 2
E = 1
S = 9
S = 9

The resulting code is 21732199.

94. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Ans.b

95. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Ans.a

96. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Ans.a

97. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Ans.c

98. select a suitable figure from the answer figures that would replace the question figure

A)a

B)b

C)c

D)d

Ans.b

99. Select a suitable figure from the answer figures that would replace the question figure

A)a

B)b

C)c

D)d

Ans.d

100. A series of figures are provided that can be classified into 3 classes. Choose from the correct group.

A). 2,3,4 ; 5,6,8 ; 9,1,7

B). 1,3,5 ; 2,6,9 ; 4,7,8

C). 1,3,5 ; 2,6,8 ; 4,7,9

D). 3,2,4 ; 6,5,8 ; 7,9,1

Ans.c

Download LDCE/LGO Answer Key 2025

Expected Cut-off Marks – LDCE/LGO 2025

The cut-off depends on vacancy, exam difficulty, and circle-wise performance.
While official cut-off will be announced with results, experts suggest:

General Category: 65–85 marks
SC/ST Category: 65–71 marks

(This is only an expected range for reference. Candidates should wait for official cut-off notification.)

❓ FAQs

Q1. When was the LDCE/LGO Postman, MTS, GDS to PA/SA exam held?
👉 On 17th August 2025 across all 23 postal circles.

Q2. Where can I download the official answer key?
👉 From the official India Post / Circle websites. We will update the direct links here once released.

Q3. Is this exam also called LGO?
👉 Yes, LDCE (Limited Departmental Competitive Exam) is also known as LGO (Lower Grade Officials exam).

Q4. When will results be declared?
👉 Usually within 1–2 months after the official answer key release.

📥 LDCE/LGO 2025 Circle-wise Question Papers & Answer Keys (CHECK RED COLOUR CIRCLES KEY)

Circle	Question Paper	Answer Key
Andhra Pradesh	Download PDF	Download Key
Assam	Download PDF	Download Key
Bihar	Download PDF	Download Key
Chhattisgarh	Download PDF	Download Key
Delhi	Download PDF	Download Key
Gujarat	Download PDF	Download Key
Haryana	Download PDF	Download Key
Himachal Pradesh	Download PDF	Download Key
Jammu & Kashmir	Download PDF	Download Key
Jharkhand	Download PDF	Download Key
Karnataka	Download PDF	Download Key
Kerala	Download PDF	Download Key
Madhya Pradesh	Download PDF	Download Key
Maharashtra	Download PDF	Download Key
North East	Download PDF	Download Key
Odisha	Download PDF	Download Key
Punjab	Download PDF	Download Key
Rajasthan	Download PDF	Download Key
Tamil Nadu	Download PDF	Download Key
Telangana	Download PDF	Download Key
Uttar Pradesh	Download PDF	Download Key
Uttarakhand	Download PDF	Download Key
West Bengal	Download PDF	Download Key

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